Class 12 Biology

Question 1. Rabies is also called:

1. Infantile paralysis
2. Lock Jaw
3. Hydrophobia
4. Amoebiasis.

Answer: 3. Hydrophobia

Question 2. Rubeola virus causes:

1. Smallpox
2. Measles
3. Chickenpox
4. Influenza.

Answer: 2. Measles

Question 3. Black Death or Great Mortality is the name given to:

1. Plague
2. Malaria
3. Cholera
4. Cancer.

Answer: 1. Plague

human health and disease pyq 

Question 4. A person with blood group ‘O’ can receive blood transfusion from persons with blood groups:

1. O and A B
2. O, A and B
3. O only
4. AB only.

Answer: 3. O only

Question 5. After which animal is the ‘Rh’ factor named?

1. Dragon fly
2. Monkey
3. Man
4. Rat.

Answer: 2. Monkey

Question 6. The universal recipient in blood transfusion belongs to the group:

1. A
2. O
3. AB
4. B.

Answer: 3. AB

Question 7. Rh factor is connected with:

1. Carbohydrate metabolism in the body
2. Initiation of protein synthesis
3. Blood clotting
4. Blood of man.

Answer: 4. Blood of man

Question 8. Haemophilia is a disease caused by deficiency of:

1. Water in plasma
2. RBCs
3. WBCs
4. Thromboplastin.

Answer: 4. Thromboplastin.

Question 9. Rh negative individuals are:

1. Homozygous dominant (RR)
2. Heterozygous (Rr)
3. Homozygous recessive (rr)
4. Possess only one gene (R or r).

Answer: 3. Homozygous recessive (rr)

Question 10. Which of the following is a genetic trait?

1. Albinism
2. Leucoderma
3. Tuberculosis
4. Diphtheria.

Answer: 1. Albinism

Question 11. The Rh factor was discovered by:

1. William Harvey
2. Landsteiner and Weiner
3. James Watson
4. Robert Hooke.

Answer: 2. Landsteiner and Weiner

Question 12. Universal donor in blood transfusion belongs to the blood group:

1. A
2. O
3. AB
4. B.

Answer: 2. O

Question 13. A woman with blood group O marries a man with blood group A. The child conceived to such a woman will:

1. Survive with normal health
2. Survive with slight anaemic conditions
3. Will not survive long
4. Will die soon after birth.

Answer: 1. Survive with normal health

Question 14. Which of the following is biologically incompatible marriage because of the danger of erythroblastosis foetal?

1. Rh^– man and Rh^– woman
2. Rh⁺ man and Rh⁺ woman
3. Both Rh positive
4. Both Rh negative.

Answer: 2. Rh⁺ man and Rh⁺ woman

Question 15. Down’s Syndrome has karyotype make-up as:

1. 44 + 3x
2. 44 + xxy
3. 45 + xx in female
4. 44 + xy or 44+ xx in female.

Answer: 3. 45 + xx in female

Question 16. If a man is Rh⁺ and the lady is Rh^– then:

1. The first child will die
2. The first child will survive
3. No child will be bom
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. The first child will survive

Question 17. If a human mother has blood group ‘O’, the foetus in the womb would die, the blood group of the foetus is

1. A
2. B
3. AB
4. No effect in any case.

Answer: 4. No effect in any case.

Question 18. To a person of blood group AB blood groups of A and B are given separately, what will happen:

1. Clumping occurs with A
2. Clumping occurs with B
3. Clumping occurs with both
4. Clumping does not occur.

Answer: 4. Clumping does not occur.

Question 19. Which of the following diseases is genetically similar to haemophilia?

1. Albinism
2. Colour blindness
3. Phenylketonuria
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Colour blindness

Question 20. The disease Erythroblastosis foetal in human embryos is caused by to:

1. Disadjustment of blood groups
2. Disadjustment of Rh factor
3. Both of these
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Disadjustment of Rh factor

Question 21. ABO blood groups were discovered by:

1. Landsteiner
2. Darwin
3. Harvey
4. Weiner.

Answer: 1. Landsteiner

Question 22. The second Rh⁺ child conceived to an Rh^– the woman will:

1. Die immediately
2. Surely survive
3. Survive with serious malformations
4. Usually die at an early stage.

Answer: 1. Die immediately

Question 23. Persons with blood group ‘O’ lack:

1. Antigens
2. Antibody ‘a’
3. Antibody ‘b’
4. Haemophilia.

Answer: 1. Antigens

Question 24. Foetal sex can be determined by examining cells from amniotic fluid looking for

1. Barr bodies
2. Chiasmata
3. Sex chromosome
4. Kinetochores.

Answer: 1. Barr bodies

Question 25. The causes of diseases like peptic ulcers, hypertension, coronary heart diseases, and liver cirrhosis are:

1. Certain viruses and bacteria
2. Excess of fats in food
3. Excessive use of alcoholic drinks
4. Not yet identified.

Answer: 3. Excessive use of alcoholic drinks

Question 26. Trisomic condition of Down’s syndrome arises due to:

1. Triploidy
2. Non-disjunction
3. Translocation
4. Dicentric bridge formation.

Answer: 2. Non-disjunction

Question 27. Condition of sex chromosomes in male children with Down’s syndrome will be:

1. XY
2. XXY
3. XX
4. XO.

Answer: 1. XY

Question 28. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is:

1. A nutritional disorder due to protein deficiency
2. An inborn error of metabolism due to a recessive autosomal gene mutation
3. A sex-linked disorder which is more common in males than in females
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. An inborn error of metabolism due to a recessive autosomal gene mutation

Question 29. Chromosomes of Klinefelter’s syndrome usually have:

1. One X
2. XXY
3. 2X only
4. No Y.

Answer: 2. XXY

Question 30. XO chromosome abnormality is:

1. Turner’s syndrome
2. Klinefelter’s syndrome
3. Criminal syndrome
4. Down’s syndrome.

Answer: 1. Turner’s syndrome

Question 31. Tay Sach’s disorder is:

1. A chromosomal disorder in young children
2. The result of severe protein deficiency in diet damages the muscle development in growing children
3. An inherited disorder in which the spinal cord and brain are severely damaged within a few months of birth leading to paralysis and mental retardation, and finally the infant’s death in 3 or 4 years
4. A genetic abnormality which appears at the age of 25-30 years and damages the bones.

Answer: 3. An inherited disorder in which the spinal cord and brain are severely damaged within a few months of birth leading to paralysis and mental retardation, and finally the infant’s death in 3 or 4 years

Question 32. Active immunity is due to:

1. Memory cells
2. Killer T-cells
3. Helper T-cells
4. Suppressor T-cells.

Answer: 1. Memory cells

Question 33. Passive immunity is provided through:

1. Exogenous supply of antigens
2. Exogenous supply of antibodies
3. Endogenous supply of antigens
4. Endogenous supply of antibodies.

Answer: 2. Exogenous supply of antibodies

Question 34. B-cells produce antibodies in response to instruction received from:

1. Killer T-cells
2. Suppressor T-cells
3. B-lymphocytes
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 35. Opsonisaiion is carried out by:

1. IgM
2. IgG
3. IgA
4. IgD and IgE.

Answer: 2. IgG

Question 36. Lysis of foreign cells is mediated through:

1. IgM and IgG
2. IgG and IgA
3. IgA and IgD
4. IgD and IgE.

Answer: 1. IgM and IgG

Question 37. T-cells have a life of:

1. 4-5 days
2. 4-5 weeks
3. 4-5 months
4. 4-5 years.

Answer: 4. 4-5 years.

Question 38. Antigenic determinant sites bind to which portions of an antibody molecule?

1. Light chains
2. Heavy chains
3. Intermediate chains
4. Both (1) and (2).

Answer: 4. Both (1) and (2).

Question 39. The cells that actually release the antibodies are:

1. Helper T-cells
2. Cytotoxic T-cells
3. Mast cells
4. Memory cells.

Answer: 3. Mast cells

Question 40. Types of T-cells are

1. Killer cells and helper cells
2. Killer cells and suppressor cells
3. Killer, helper and suppressor cells
4. Killer, helper and depressor cells.

Answer: 3. Killer, helper and suppressor cells

Question 41. Interferon is a protein that:

1. Inactivates a virus
2. Protects unattacked cells from virus
3. Prevents viruses from taking over the cellular machinery
4. All of the above.

Answer: 2. Protects unattacked cells from virus

Question 42. The most modern technique of vaccine preparation is:

1. Extraction of antigens from pathogens
2. Multiplication of antigens through DNA technique
3. Weakening of pathogens through chemical treatment
4. Attenuation of the pathogen through heat.

Answer: 2. Multiplication of antigens through DNA technique

Question 43. AIDS testing on normal individuals is done by:

1. Separation of virus
2. Reduction in immunity of the individual
3. Identification of antibodies
4. Identification of antigen-toxin.

Answer: 3. Identification of antibodies

Question 44. When people are born without B-cells or T-cells, they suffer from:

1. Autoimmune diseases
2. Immunodeficiency diseases
3. Both of these
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Immunodeficiency diseases

Question 45. Which of the following is incorrect:

1. Skin is a tough outer layer, so it prevents entry of bacteria and viruses
2. Skin secretes oil and sweat by the glands which makes the surface basic and thus kills the microbes
3. Skin secretes lysozyme along with sweat which prevents infection
4. Some bacteria are present on the skin which release acids and other metabolic wastes that inhibit the growth of pathogens.

Answer: 2. Skin secretes oil and sweat by the glands which makes the surface basic and thus kills the microbes

Question 46. Which one of the following diseases is due to an allergic reaction?

1. Enteric fever
2. Hay fever
3. Skin cancer
4. Goitre.

Answer: 2. Hay fever

Question 1. Growth of the population of an area depends upon:

1. Natality rate
2. Immigration
3. Environmental resistance
4. All of these.

Answer: 4. All of these.

Question 2. In India, there is a decline in the female population as compared to males. This is because of:

1. Female infanticide
2. Fewer females reach reproductive age
3. The number of female children born is less
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Female infanticide

Question 3. Woman plays a greater role in procreation than man (women are biologically superior to men) because they:

1. Nurses the foetus in her womb
2. Feeds the infant on her milk
3. Cleans infant’s excreta
4. Does all the above.

Answer: 4. Does all the above?

Question 4. Which of the following causes the storage of fat in the liver?

1. Amphetamines
2. Barbiturates
3. All synthetic drugs
4. Alcohol.

Answer: 4. Alcohol.

Question 5. Depression in the activities of central nervous system may be caused by:

1. Narcotics
2. Stimulants
3. Both narcotics as well as stimulants
4. Neither narcotics nor stimulants.

Answer: 1. Narcotics

Question 6. Which of the following is not a derivative of opium?

1. Morphine
2. Heroin
3. Cocaine
4. Codein.

Answer: 3. Cocaine

Question 7. Which of the following is not obtained from Cannabis indica?

1. Marijuana
2. Bhang
3. Charas
4. Ganja.

Answer: 1. Marijuana

Question 8. The drug extracted from Argot fungus is:

1. Pethidine
2. Methadone
3. L.S.D.
4. Opium.

Answer: 3. L.S.D.

Question 9. Which of the following drugs is responsible for the production of an abnormal foetus?

1. L.S.D.
2. Cocaine
3. Heroin
4. Alcohol.

Answer: 1. L.S.D.

Question 10. Match the words in Column A with those in Column B

1. (1-E), (2-B), (3-A) and (4-C)
2. (1-D), (2-A), (3-C), and (4-E)
3. (1-D), (2-A), (3-E) and (4-B)
4. (1-D), (2-E), (3-A) and (4-B).

Answer: 2. (1-D), (2-A), (3-C), and (4-E)

Question 11. Consumption of alcohol causes:

1. Dilation of blood vessels
2. Constriction of blood vessels
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Dilation of blood vessels

Question 12. LSD is obtained from:

1. Papaver somniferum
2. Cannabis sativa
3. Claviceps
4. Solanum nigrum.

Answer: 3. Claviceps

Question 13. Morphine is obtained from:

1. Papaver somniferum
2. Cannabis sativa
3. Claviceps
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Claviceps

Question 14. Barbiturates and valium area

1. Stimulants
2. Sedatives
3. Hallucinogens
4. Carcinogens.

Answer: 2. Sedatives

Question 15. Which one of the following is the most harmful derivative of opium?

1. Codein
2. Pethidine
3. Methadone
4. Heroin.

Answer: 4. Heroin.

Question 16. Tobacco smoke contains

1. CO₂, hydrocarbon and tar
2. CO₂ and tar
3. CO₂ polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon and tar.
4. CO₂, CO and tar.

Answer: 3. CO₂, polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon and tar.

Question 17. Neuritis is an inflammation of:

1. Only axon
2. Entire neuron
3. Only cyton
4. Only dendrites.

Answer: 1. Only axon

Question 18. Mental health is influenced by:

1. Biological factors
2. Social factors
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Economic factors.

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 19. Barbiturates are extensively used as:

1. Antiseptics
2. Stimulants
3. Disinfectants
4. Sedatives.

Answer: 4. Sedatives.

Question 20. The most important organ damaged by alcohol is:

1. Heart
2. Brain
3. Lung
4. Liver.

Answer: 4. Liver.

Question 21. A severe type of mental illness in which patients lose touch with reality is known as:

1. Psychosis
2. Neurosis
3. Epilepsy
4. All of the above.

Answer: 1. Psychosis

Question 22. Bhang, charas, marijuana and hashish are obtained from:

1. Nicotiana plant
2. Papaver somniferum
3. Cannabis sativa
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Cannabis sativa

Question 23. The continuous and excessive intake of alcohol causes:

1. Fatty liver syndrome
2. Cirrhosis
3. Hypertension
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 24. Which of the following diseases are included under the global immunisation programme launched by WHO?

1. Diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis and measles
2. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, measles, polio and mumps
3. Pertussis, tuberculosis, tetanus, mumps, malaria and measles
4. Diphtheria, tetanus, tuberculosis, smallpox and measles.

Answer: 1. Diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis and measles

Question 25. Which of the following compounds can alter a person’s thoughts, feelings and perceptions?

1. LSD
2. Mescalin and psilocybin
3. ganja
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 26. Seizure is a condition of:

1. Mood fluctuation
2. Epileptic attack
3. Trembling caused by mental sickness
4. Tremor of limbs in Parkinson’s disease.

Answer: 2. Epileptic attack

Question 27. Paralysis agitans was discovered by:

1. Parkinson
2. Huntington
3. Waller
4. Einthoven.

Answer: 1. Parkinson

Question 28. ECTis:

1. Electro-cardio-traction
2. Electro convulsive therapy
3. Emergency cardiac treatment
4. Effects of chewing tobacco.

Answer: 2. Electroconvulsive therapy

Question 29. Mental diseases can be treated by:

1. Shock treatment
2. Psychotherapy
3. Social therapy
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 30. The universal immunisation programme was launched in:

1. 1947
2. 1990
3. 1985
4. 1975.

Answer: 3. 1985

Question 31. Global Immunisation Programme was started in:

1. May, 1974
2. May, 1984
3. August, 1985
4. May, 1963.

Answer: 1. May, 1974

Question 32. Project Pulse Polio is concerned with

1. Eliminating polio by 2000
2. Widespread attack of polio in certain pockets
3. Segregation of polio-prone areas
4. Repeated vaccination for polio.

Answer: 1. Eliminating polio by 2000

Question 33. Any drug which is taken intravenously is called:

1. 1-drug
2. 2-drug
3. 3-drug
4. 4-drug.

Answer: 4. 4-drug.

Question 34. Select the vitamin deficiency reported in an alcoholic:

1. A
2. D
3. E
4. K.

Answer: 1. A

Question 35. Ciliotoxin present in tobacco smoke is:

1. Acrolein
2. Formaldehyde and acetaldehyde
3. Nitrogen oxides
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 36. The most serious form of mental illness is:

1. Neurosis
2. Psychosis
3. Epilepsy
4. Cancer.

Answer: 2. Psychosis

Question 37. Nicotine derived from tobacco plants is:

1. Steroid
2. Glycoproteins
3. Lipoproteins
4. Alkaloid.

Answer: 4. Alkaloid.

Question 38. Any chemical which causes loss of sensation is:

1. Sedative
2. Analgesic
3. Anaesthetic
4. Stimulant.

Answer: 3. Anaesthetic

Question 39. Tobacco smoke causes inflammation of lung alveoli and causes:

1. Bronchitis
2. Lung cancer
3. Pulmonary TB
4. Emphysema.

Answer: 4. Emphysema

Question 40. In an alcoholic, urine is generally:

1. Hypo-osmotic
2. Hyper-osmotic
3. Iso-osmotic
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Hyper-osmotic

Question 41. Which of the following chemicals is derived from urea malonic acid and used in inducing sleep?

1. Diazepam
2. Benzodiazepine
3. Barbiturate
4. Amphetamine.

Answer: 3. Barbiturate

Question 42. Select the correct statement from the ones given below:

1. Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a painkiller
2. Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it stimulates recovery)
3. Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and heart rate
4. Barbiturates when given to criminals make them tell the truth.

Answer: 1. Morphine is often given to persons who have undergone surgery as a painkiller

Question 1. Two non-allelic genes produce the new phenotype when present together but fail to do so independently, then it is called:

1. Epistasis
2. Polygene
3. Non-complementary gene
4. Complementary gene.

Answer: 4. Complementary gene

Question 2. Two individuals with similar external appearance but different genetic make up have the similar:

1. Genotype
2. Phenotype
3. Hctcrozygotc
4. Homozygote.

Answer: 2. Phenotype

Question 3. Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or phenotypes in which the sources of the gametes arc reversed in one cross, is known as:

1. Test cross
2. Reciprocal cross
3. Dihybrid cross
4. Reverse cross.

Answer: 2. Reciprocal cross

mcq on principles of inheritance and variation

Question 4. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are now known to be located on how many different chromosomes?

1. Seven
2. Six
3. Five
4. Four

Answer: 4. Four

mcq on principles of inheritance and variation

Question 5. Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature?

1. Round seed shape
2. Axial flower position
3. Green seed colour
4. Green pod colour

Answer: 3. Green seed colour

Question 6. When a cluster of genes shows linkage behaviour they :

1. Induce cell division
2. Do not show a chromosome map,
3. Show recombination during meiosis
4. Do not show independent assortment.

Answer: 4. Do not show independent assortment

Question 7. Alleles represent :

1. Different forms of a gene
2. Same loci on homologous chromosomes
3. Two or more forms
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

inheritance and variation mcq

Question 8. If a cross between two plants gives 50% tall and 50% dwarf progeny, then the parent’s genotype is:

1. Tt x Tt
2. Tt x tt
3. TT x tt
4. TT x Tt.

Answer: 2. Tt x tt

Question 9. How many different types of gametes can be formed by F, progeny, resulting from the cross AABBCC × aabbcc?

1. 3
2. 8
3. 27
4. 64.

Answer: 2. 8

Question 10. A person with blood group A has :

1. Antigen A and antibody b
2. Antigen B and antibody a
3. Antigen A and antibody B
4. No antibody and no antigen.

Answer: 1. Antigen A and antibody b

Question 11. Self-fertilising trihybrid plants form :

1. Eight different gametes and 64 different zygotes
2. Four different gametes and sixteen different zygotes
3. Eight different gametes and sixteen different zygotes
4. Eight different gametes and thirty-two different zygotes.

Answer: 1. Eight different gametes and 64 different zygotes

Question 12. When a tall and red flowered individual is crossed with a dwarf and white flowered individual, the phenotype of the progeny will be :

1. Homozygous tall and red
2. Heterozygous tall and red
3. Homozygous tall and white
4. Homozygous dwarf and white

Answer: 2. Heterozygous tall and red

Question 13. Genetic counsellors can identify heterozygous individuals by

1. Height of individuals
2. Colour of individuals
3. Screening procedures
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 14. If a homozygous red-flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous white-flowered plant, the offspring would be :

1. All red flowered
2. Half red flowered
3. Half white flowered
4. All white flowered.

Answer: 1. All red flowered

biology objective question in english

Question 15. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F, generation resembles both the parents?

1. Law of dominance
2. Co-dominance
3. Inheritance of one gene
4. Incomplete dominance

Answer: 3. Inheritance of one gene

Question 16. Given below is a pedigree chart of a family with five children. It shows the inheritance of attached earlobes as opposed to the free ones. The squares represent the male individuals and circles the female individuals. Which one of the following conclusions drawn is correct?

1. The parents are homozygous recessive
2. The trait is Y-linked
3. The parents are homozygous dominant
4. The parents are heterozygous.

Answer: 4. The parents are heterozygous

inheritance and variation mcq

Question 17. Which of the following terms represents a pair of contrasting characters?

1. Allele
2. Phenotype
3. Homozygous
4. Heterozygous.

Answer: 1. Allele

Question 18. Following are the statements, which are either true or false. Examine them and find out the incorrect answer. Mendel had selected Pisum sativum (garden pea) as his experi¬ mental tool because :

1. The hybrids remain infertile
2. The plants can be self-fertilized
3. These small herbaceous plants can be easily cultivated
4. There are several pairs of contrasting characters of allotrophic traits.

Answer: 4. There are several pairs of contrasting characters of allotrophic traits

Question 19. Cross between a homozygous black rough (BBRR) guinea pig and a homozygous white smooth guinea pig (bbrr) produced F, progeny all black and rough. Assuming that the black colour is dominant over white skin rough skin is dominant over smooth skin and the two genes involved are present on different chromosomes. The percentage of F₂ individuals who are heterozygous for both gene pairs would be :

1. 25%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 35%.

Answer: 1. 25%

Question 20. The genetic ratio of 9:3:3:1 is due to:

1. Segregation of characters
2. Crossing over of chromosomes
3. Independent assortment of genes
4. Homologous pairing between chromosomes

Answer: 3. Independent assortment of genes

Question 21. When a cross is made between two species of the same genus, then the cross is known as :

1. Intraspecific hybridization
2. Interspecific hybridization
3. Intergeneric hybridization
4. Intervarietal hybridization.

Answer: 2. Interspecific hybridization

Question 22. Pure tall plants are crossed with pure dwarf plants. In the F₁ generation, all plants were tall. All the plants of the F₁ generation were selfed and the ratio of tall to dwarf plants obtained was 3:1. This is called :

1. Dominance
2. Inheritance
3. Codominance
4. Heredity

Answer: 1. Dominance

Question 23. Epistasis is the:

1. One pair of genes can completely mask the expression of another pair of genes
2. One pair of genes independently controls a particular phenotype
3. One pair of genes enhances the phenotype expression of another pair of gene
4. Many genes collectively control a particular phenotype.

Answer: 1. One pair of genes can completely mask the expression of another pair of genes

Question 24. When one gene hides the effect of another gene, the interaction factor is known as:

1. Epistatic factor
2. Duplicate factor
3. Complementary factor
4. Supplementary factor

Answer: 1. Epistatic factor

Question 25. A genetically dwarf plant made tall by use of Gibberellin was crossed with a plant purely tall. Then the progenies would be :

1. All dwarf
2. All tall
3. 50% tall and 50% dwarf
4. May be tall or dwarf

Answer: 2. All tall

biology objective question in english

Question 26. Which of the following is considered a recessive character of Mendel?

1. Round seed
2. Wrinkled seed
3. Axial flower
4. Green pod.

Answer: 2. Wrinkled seed

Question 27. Which of the following characters chosen by Mendel are recessive?

1. Green pod colour dwarf plant
2. Tall plant and axial flowers
3. Yellow pod colour and wrinkled seeds
4. Dwarf plant and round seeds.

Answer: 3. Yellow pod colour and wrinkled seeds

Question 28. Which is the functional unit of inheritance?

1. Gene
2. Cistron
3. Intron
4. Chromosome

Answer: 1. Gene

Question 29. Heterosis requires :

1. Crossing
2. Selection
3. Transformation
4. Mutations

Answer: 1. Crossing

Question 30. The phenotypic ratio obtained in quantitative inheritance of a dihybrid cross is :

1. 1: 2: 1
2. 1: 4 : 6: 4: 1
3. 1 :6: 15:20: 15:6: 1
4. 9:3:3: 1.

Answer: 2. 1: 4 : 6: 4: 1

Question 31. Mating between two individuals differing in genotype to produce genetic variation is called :

1. Mutation
2. Introduction
3. Hybridization
4. Domestication.

Answer: 3. Hybridization

Question 32. Grain colour in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygenes. Following is the cross AABBCC (dark colour) and aabbcc (light colour), in the F₂ generation what proportion of the progeny is likely to resemble either parent?

1. None
2. Half
3. One third
4. Less than 5 per cent.

Answer: 4. less than 5 per cent.

Question 33. The primary source of allelic variation is :

1. Mutation
2. Polyploidy
3. Recombination
4. Independent assortment

Answer: 3. Recombination

Question 34. To find out the different types of gametes produced by a pea plant having the genotype AaBb, it should be crossed to a plant with the genotype :

1. aaBB
2. AaBb
3. AABB
4. Aabb

Answer: 4. Aabb

Question 35. At a particular locus frequency of the ‘A’ allele is 0.6 that of the ‘A’ allele is 0.6 and that of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium? 

1. 0.16
2. 0.48
3. 0.36
4. 0.24.

Answer: 2. 0.48

Question 36. Test cross involves :

1. Crossing the F₁ hybrid with a double recessive genotype
2. Crossing between two genotypes with the dominant trait
3. Crossing between two genotypes with a recessive trait
4. Crossing between two F₁ hybrids.

Answer: 1. Crossing the F₁ hybrid with a double recessive genotype

Question 37. In Mendel’s experiments with the garden pea, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr), and yellow cotyledon (YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy). What are the expected phenotypes in the F₂ generation of the cross RRYY × rryy

1. Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
2. Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
3. Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
4. Only round seeds with green cotyledons.

Answer: 2. Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons

Question 38. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC?

1. Nine
2. Two
3. Six
4. Three.

Answer: 2. Two

Question 39. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by :

1. Harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
2. Inducing mutations
3. Bombarding the protoplast with DNA
4. Crossing of two inbred parental lines.

Answer: 4. Crossing of two inbred parental lines

Question 40. The phenotype of an organism is the result of:

1. Environmental changes and sexual dimorphism
2. Genotype and environment interactions
3. Mutations and linkages
4. Cytoplasmic effects and nutrition.

Answer: 2. Genotype and environment interactions

Question 41. Which one of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?

1. Pod shape in garden pea
2. Skin colour in humans
3. Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa
4. Production of male honey bee

Answer: 2. Skin colour in humans

Question 42. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by :

1. Crossing of one F₂ progeny with a female parent
2. Studying the sexual behaviour of F₂ progenies
3. Crossing of one F₁ progeny with a male parent
4. Crossing of one F₂ progeny with a male parent.

Answer: 2. Studying the sexual behaviour of F₂ progenies

Question 43. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of a maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show :

1. Segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3: 1 ratio.
2. Segregation in 3: 1 ratio.
3. A higher number of the parental types.
4. Highernumberoftherecombinant types.

Answer: 2. Segregation in 3: 1 ratio

Question 44. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of:

1. Point mutation
2. Polygenic inheritance
3. Codominance
4. Chromosomal aberration.

Answer: 2. Polygenic inheritance

Question 45. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow-seeded plant is crossed with a green-seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green-seeded plants would you expect in Ff generation?

1. 9: 1
2. 1 : 3
3. 3: 1
4. 50:50

Answer: 4. 50:50

Question 46. A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab about two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?

1. AaBB
2. AABb
3. AABB
4. AaBb

Answer: 4. AaBb

Question 47. When a cross is conducted between a black-feathered hen and a white-feathered cock, blue-feathered fowls are formed. When these fowls are allowed for interbreeding, in F, generation, there are 20 blue fowls. What would be the number of black and white fowls?

1. Black 10, white 10
2. Black 10, white 20
3. Black 20, white 10
4. Black 20, white 20

Answer: 1. Black 10, white 10

Question 48. Grain colour in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygenes. Following the cross AABBCC (dark colour) x aabbcc light colour), in the F₂ generation what proportion of the progeny is likely to resemble either parent?

1. Half
2. Less than 5%
3. One third
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. One third

Question 49. Match the genetic phenomena with the respective ratios

1. 1=E,2=D,3=C,4=B,5=A
2. 1=A,2=B,3=D,4=C,5=E
3. 1=D,2=E,3=A,4=,5=C
4. 1=E,2=D,3=A,4=B,5=C,

Answer: 3. 1=D,2=E,3=A,4=,5=C

Question 50. A pedigree analysis represents

1. Unrelated mating
2. Consanguinous mating
3. Affected parents
4. Siblings
5. Non-identical twins.

Answer: 2. Consanguinous mating

Question 51. Indicate, the inheritance of which of the following is controlled by multiple alleles:

1. Colour blindness
2. Sickle cell anaemia
3. Blood group
4. Phenylketonuria

Answer: 3. Blood group

Question 52. Which of the following is related to haemophilia?

1. A recessive gene responsible for present in the X chromosome
2. A dominant gene responsible for present in the autosomal chromosome
3. A responsible dominant gene present in the Y chromosome
4. A responsible dominant gene presents the autosomal chromosome

Answer: 1. A recessive gene responsible for present in the X chromosome

Question 53. F₂ generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are the same as 1 : 2: 1. It represents a case of:

1. Dihybrid cross
2. Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
3. Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
4. Co-dominance

Answer: 3. Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance

Question 54. A normal-visioned man whose father was colour-blind marries a woman whose father was also colour-blind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colour-blind?

1. Zero per cent
2. 25%
3. 50%
4. 100%.

Answer: 1. zero per cent

Question 55. A man having the genotype EEFfGgHH can produce P number of genetically different sperms and a woman of genotype liU.MmNn can generate (J number of genetically different eggs. Determine the values of P and Q.

1. P = 4, Q = 4
2. P = 4. Q = 8
3. P = 8. Q = 4
4. P = 8. Q = 8.

Answer: 2. P = 4. Q = 8

Question 56. In an organism, a tall phenotype is dominant over a recessive dwarf phenotype, and the alleles are designated as T and t, respectively. Upon crossing two different individuals, a total of 250 offspring were obtained, out of which 124 displayed tall phenotype and the rest were dwarf. Thus, the genotype of the parents was

1. TTxTT
2. TT x tt
3. Tt x Tt
4. Tt x ti.

Answer: 4. Tt x ti

Question 57. When yellow round heterozygous pea plants are self-fertilized, the frequency of occurrence of the RrYY genotype among the offspring is

1. 9/16
2. 3/16
3. 2/16
4. 1/16

Answer: 3. 2/16

Question 58. ABO blood groups are determined by three different alleles. How many genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

Answer: 2

Question 59. If two persons with ‘An AB’ blood group marry and have a sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group: ‘AB’ blood group: ‘B’ blood group in a 1:2:1 ratio. The modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals the presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an example of:

1. Incomplete dominance
2. Partial dominance
3. Complete dominance
4. Codominance

Answer: 4. Codominance

Question 60. The incorrect statement about Haemophilia is :

1. It is a recessive disease
2. It is a dominant disease
3. A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected
4. It is a sex-linked disease

Answer: 2. It is a dominant disease

Question 1. Which animals dominated in the Palaeozoic era?

1. Fish
2. Birds
3. Reptiles
4. Mammals.

Answer: 1. Fish

Question 2. Which is supposed to be the largest known fossils of reptiles?

1. Stegosaurus
2. Diplodocus
3. Gigantosaurus
4. Igamanodon.

Answer: 4. Igamanodon.

Question 3. Analogous organs have a:

1. Common embryonic origin but performs different functions
2. Different embryonic origins and perform different functions
3. Different embryonic origins but perform similar functions
4. Common embryonic origin and perform similar functions.

Answer: 3. Different embryonic origin but perform similar functions

evolution mcq

Question 4. Birds evolved from:

1. Reptiles
2. Amphibians
3. Fishes
4. Tetrapods.

Answer: 1. Reptiles

Question 5. Possession of venoms in animals is an attribute to:

1. Fossorial adaptation
2. Desert adaptation
3. Arboreal adaptation
4. Aquatic adaptation.

Answer: 2. Desert adaptation

Question 6. First mammals occurred in which era period?

1. Permian-Palaeozoic
2. Triassic-Mesozoic
3. Tertiary-Cenozoic
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Triassic-Mesozoic

Question 7. The appearance of ancestral characters in the newborns, such as the tail, multiple mammae etc. is known as:

1. Homologous
2. Analogous
3. Atavism
4. Vestigial.

Answer: 3. Atavism

Question 8. The correct sequence is:

1. Palaeozoic —Mesozoic—Cenozoic
2. Mesozoic—Archaeozoic—Proterozoic
3. Palaeozoic—Archaeozoic—Coenozoic
4. Archaeozoic—Palaeozoic—Coenozoic.

Answer: 1. Palaeozoic —Mesozoic—Cenozoic

Question 9. A bird with teeth is:

1. Kiwi
2. Ostrich/King Vulture
3. Dodo
4. Archaeopteryx.

Answer: 4. Archaeopteryx.

Question 10. The recapitulation of protozoan ancestry is seen in:

1. Poriferan zygote
2. Colonies of hydrozoa
3. Zygote of metazoans
4. Anthozoa.

Answer: 3. Zygote of metazoans

Question 11. The term used for similarity in organ structure seen in great diversity is:

1. Homology
2. Analogy
3. Symmetrical
4. Identical.

Answer: 1. Homology

evolution class 12 mcq

Question 12. Homologous organs are those that show similarities in

1. Origin
2. Size
3. Appearance
4. Function.

Answer: 1. Origin

Question 13. Which of the following is a connecting link?

1. Limulus
2. Peripatus
3. Periplaneta
4. Pila.

Answer: 2. Peripatus

Question 14. Which set includes all vestigial structures of man?

1. Vermiform appendix, body hair and cochlea
2. Coccyx, appendix, ear muscles
3. Coccyx, wisdom tooth, patella
4. Ear muscles, atlas, body hair.

Answer: 2. Coccyx, appendix, ear muscles

Question 15. Mesozoic era is the era of:

1. Fishes
2. Reptiles
3. Birds
4. Mammals.

Answer: 2. Reptiles

Question 16. The most evident source of evolution is:

1. Fossils
2. Embryos
3. Morphology
4. Vestigial organs.

Answer: 1. Fossils

Question 17. A scene from the Jurassic period: Dinosaurs roaming in carboniferous forests, eating plants, killing each other and being eaten by lions and tigers. What is the catch?

1. There were no carboniferous forests when dinosaurs were there
2. All dinosaurs were carnivorous
3. Lions and tigers had not evolved by that time
4. Dinosaurs did not fight among themselves.

Answer: 3. Lions and tigers had not evolved by that time

Question 18. Free caudal vertebrae occurred in fossil Archaeopteryx. The trait is:

1. Reptilian
2. Avian
3. Neither 1 nor 2
4. Mammalian.

Answer: 1. Reptilian

questions about evolution

Question 19. Gondwana Land comprised:

1. India and Australia
2. India. Australia and New Zealand
3. India, Australia, New Zealand and South Africa.
4. India, Australia, New Zealand, South Africa and South America.

Answer: 4. India, Australia, New Zealand, South Africa and South America.

Question 20. The origin of different finches on the Galapagos islands is an example of:

1. Convergent evolution
2. Divergent evolution
3. Adaptive radiation
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3.

Question 21. Related species of Alligators and Magnolias occur in:

1. Both sides of the isthmus of Panama
2. China and Japan
3. China and eastern U.S.A,
4. Parts of Russia and Canada.

Answer: 3. China and eastern U.S.A,

Question 22. Neoceratodus is a connecting link between

1. Cyclostomes and fishes
2. Fishes and amphibians
3. Amphibians and reptiles
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Fishes and amphibians

Question 23. Which of the following are connecting links?

1. Lung fishes
2. Prototherians
3. Peripatus
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 24. Tachyglossus is a connecting link between:

1. Reptiles and birds
2. Reptiles and mammals
3. Birds and mammals
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Reptiles and mammals

Question 25. Why do we dig fossils and study them?

1. To find new fossils that have not yet been recorded
2. Fossil finding gives occupation to scientists
3. Fossil fills the gaps in the evolutionary records of animals
4. Fossils throw light on the evolution of animals of the past.

Answer: 4. Fossils throw light on the evolution of animals of the past.

Question 26. Which one of the following is used for dating archaeological specimens in wood, bones and shells?

1. Uranium – 238
2. Argon Isotope
3. Carbon – 14
4. Strontium – 90.

Answer: 3. Carbon – 14

Question 27. Physiological evidence in favour of evolution is demonstrated by:

1. Similarity in body structures
2. Closely related forms being placed in the same group of animals
3. Identity in the functioning of hormones and chemical- physiological nature of blood
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Identity in the functioning of hormones and chemical- physiological nature of blood

Question 28. Being all mammals,, dolphins, bats, monkeys and horses have some important common characteristics but they also show the conspicuous differences. This is due to the phenomenon of:

1. Genetic drift
2. Convergence
3. Divergence
4. Normalization.

Answer: 3. Divergence

Question 29. The Lederberg Replica-Plating experiment has proved in evolution, the role of:

1. Natural selection
2. Artificial selection
3. Adaptation in evolution
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 30. Pliohippus arose in:

1. Holocene
2. Pliocene
3. Oligocene
4. Miocene.

Answer: 2. Pliocene

Question 31. Amphibia first appeared in:

1. Permian
2. Carboniferous
3. Devonian
4. Silurian.

Answer: 3. Devonian

Question 32. The Permian period during which the first most modern orders of insects appeared, occurred approximately:

1. 80 million years ago
2. 150 million years ago
3. 280 million years ago
4. 550 million years ago.

Answer: 3. 280 million years ago

Question 33. Dinosaurs were abundant in:

1. Jurassic period
2. Devonian period
3. Permian period
4. Pleistocene period.

Answer: 1. Jurassic period

Question 34. Which of the following statements is wrong?

1. Continuous variations appear suddenly or accidentally
2. Continuous variations are very common and they are caused due to environmental changes
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 35. Some insects, such as cockroaches have biting and chewing mouth parts, housefly has sponging type of mouth parts, whereas a mosquito has piercing and sucking mouth parts. These various types of mouth parts are examples of:

1. Analogous organs
2. Homologous organs
3. Similar organs
4. Dissimilar organs.

Answer: 2. Homologous organs

evolution means fill in the blanks

Question 36. According to the geologic time-table, man belongs to:

1. The Pleistocene epoch of the quaternary period of Coenozoic era
2. Cretaceous period of Mesozoic era
3. Permian period of Palaeozoic era
4. Oligocene epoch of tertiary period of Cenozoic era.

Answer: 1. Pleistocene epoch of the quaternary period of Coenozoic era

Question 37. For how many years have the dinosaurs been extinct?

1. About 65 million years
2. About 135 m. years
3. About 230 m. years
4. About 280 m. years.

Answer: 1. About 65 million years

Question 38. When did the first forest appear?

1. In the Cambrian period of Palaeozoic era
2. In Devonian period of Palaeozoic era
3. In Jurassic period of Mesozoic era
4. In the tertiary period of the Coenozoic era.

Answer: 2. In Devonian period of Palaeozoic era

Question 39. The word ‘Dinosaur’ was invented by

1. G. Gaylord Simpson
2. Sir Richard Owen
3. J.L.B. Smith
4. Empedocles.

Answer: 2. Sir Richard Owen

Question 40. Which one of the following fossils represents a connecting, link between the evolution of mammals from reptiles?

1. Archaeopteryx
2. Sphenodon
3. Mammoth
4. Dimetrodon.

Answer: 4. Dimetroden.

Question 41. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany is located at:

1. Lucknow
2. Kolkatta
3. Pune
4. Bangalore.

Answer: 1. Lucknow

Question 42. Monera evolved during:

1. Azoic
2. Archaeozoic
3. Proterozoic
4. Precambrian.

Answer: 2. Archaeozoic

Question 43. Age of trilobites is:

1. Precambrian
2. Devonian
3. Cambrian
4. Permian.

Answer: 3. Cambrian

Question 44. The epoch in which the first man-like creatures evolved was:

1. Holocene
2. Pliocene
3. Pleistocene
4. Miocene.

Answer: 2. Pliocene

Question 45. What are the fossil contents of alimentary canals known as?

1. Trails
2. Casts
3. Coprolite
4. Impressions.

Answer: 3. Coprolite

Question 46. During fossilisation soft parts decompose and harder parts are impregnated with minerals and turn into stony shapes and are called:

1. Moulds
2. Casts
3. Petrified
4. Coprolites.

Answer: 3. Petrified

Question 47. The origin of the first mammals occurred:

1. 220 million years ago
2. 600 million years ago
3. 240 million years ago
4. Over 1600 million years ago.

Answer: 3. 240 million years ago

Question 48. The term orthogenesis means:

1. Indirect evolution
2. Evolution in a straight line
3. Species differentiation
4. Change in germplasm.

Answer: 2. Evolution in a straight line

Question 49. The term orthogenesis was proposed by:

1. Haeckel
2. Cuvier
3. Darwin
4. Julian Huxley.

Answer: 1. Haeckel

Question 50. The oldest fossils of land animals consist of:

1. Amphibians
2. Centipedes
3. Primitive spider
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 1. Amphibians

Question 51. Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf, marsupial exhibit:

1. Adaptive radiation
2. Convengent evolution
3. Divergent evolution
4. Homology

Answer: 2. Convengent evolution

Question 52. The age of mammals and birds is known as:

1. Palaeozoic
2. Cenozoic
3. Mesozoic
4. Proterozoic.

Answer: 2. Coenozoic

Question 53. Which of the following were the dominant animals of Palaeozoic era?

1. Birds
2. Egg laying mammals
3. Reptiles
4. Cartilage and bony fishes.

Answer: 4. Cartilage and bony fishes

Question 54. The founder of modem palaeontology is:

1. Birbal Sahni
2. Steward
3. Cuvier
4. Leonard de Vinci.

Answer: 3. Cuvier

Question 55. Remains of woolly Mammoth found in the permafrost of Siberia are:

1. 5000 years old
2. 25000 years old
3. 500,000 years old
4. 2.5 million years old.

Answer: 2. 25000 years old

Question 56. Pompeii city was buried in lava of Mount Vesuvius during:

1. 635 B. C.
2. 79 A. D.
3. 635 A. D.
4. 1379 A. D.

Answer: 2. 79 A. D.

Question 57. Compressions are a type of fossils having:

1. All internal details
2. Organic material is replaced by mineral matter
3. Compressed remains of dead organisms
4. Thin carbon film showing external features.

Answer: 4. Thin carbon film showing external features.

Question 58. Fossils of Archaeopteryx were found from:

1. Jurassic rocks
2. Triassic rocks
3. Cretaceous rocks
4. Cenozoic rocks.

Answer: 1. Jurassic rocks

Question 59. Birds are glorified reptiles has been proved by the discovery of fossils which resembles birds and reptiles:

1. Struthio
2. Archaeopteryx
3. Apteryx
4. Ornithorhynchus.

Answer: 2. Archaeopteryx

Question 60. What is the appearance of ancestral characters in an individual called?

1. Atavism
2. Analogy
3. Homology
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Atavism

Question 61. Proteus engines is characterised by vestigial:

1. Limbs
2. Eyes
3. Wings
4. Vermiform appendix.

Answer: 2. Eyes

Question 62. The flightless bird of Australia is:

1. Kiwi and Rhea
2. Rhea and Emu
3. Emu and Cassowary
4. Emu and Kiwi.

Answer: 3. Emu and Cassowary

Question 63. An incompletely three-chambered heart occurs in:

1. Protopterus
2. Chiamera
3. Salamander
4. Dogfish.

Answer: 1. Protopterus

Question 64. Sacculina shows:

1. Retrogressive metamorphosis
2. A number of vestigial organs
3. Progressive metamorphosis
4. Protochordate traits.

Answer: 1. Retrogressive metamorphosis

Question 65. Who proposed for the first time that a developing animal embryo passes through stages resembling adults of its ancestors:

1. Von Baer
2. Meckel
3. Haeckel
4. Darwin.

Answer: 2. Meckel

Question 66. Replacement of original hard parts or even the soft tissues of the organisms by minerals is known as:

1. Compression
2. Petrification
3. Moulds
4. Amber.

Answer: 2. Petrification

Question 67. Stings develop from:

1. The last abdominal segment in Honey Bee and Scorpion.
2. Ovipositor in Honey Bee and scorpion
3. Ovipositor in Honey Bee and last abdominal segment in Scorpion.
4. The last abdominal segment in Honey Bee and ovipositor in Scorpion.

Answer: 3. Ovipositor in Honey Bee and last abdominal segment in Scorpion

Question 68. Cycas and Ginkgo are connecting links between:

1. Bryophytes and pteridophytes
2. Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
3. Gymnosperms and angiosperms
4. Thallophyta and bryophyta.

Answer: 2. Pteridophytes and gymnosperms

Question 69. Which one of the following animals has been extinct recently?

1. Dodo
2. Dinosaur
3. Pterodactyl
4. Mammoth.

Answer: 1. Dodo

Question 70. Analogous organs with similar external morphology are called:

1. Heteroplastic
2. Homoplastic
3. Heteromorphic
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 2. Homplastic

Question 71. Possession of accessory respiratory organ in Anabas is an example of:

1. Ecological adaptations
2. Physiological adaptations
3. Parasitic adaptations
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Ecological adaptations

Question 72. How did dinosaurs become extinct? There are many hypotheses. One mostly accepted is:

1. Due to sudden changes in the environment
2. Due to global warming
3. Due to the impact of meteorites
4. Due to their predation by lions and tigers.

Answer: 3. Due to the impact of meteorites

Question 73. Find the odd man out:

1. Seal’s flipper
2. Bat’s wing
3. Horse’s foot
4. Butterfly’s wings.

Answer: 4. Butterfly’s wings.

Question 74. The biggest and heaviest dinosaur was:

1. Brachiosaurus
2. Tyrannosaurus
3. Allosaurus
4. Stegosaurus.

Answer: 1. Brachiosaurus

Question 75. The first fossil bird found in the rocks of the Jurassic period belongs to genera:

1. Archaeopteryx
2. Archaeomis
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 76. In Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany in Lucknow, 3.2 billion-year-old rocks are kept which have fossils of:

1. Algae
2. Euglena
3. Virus
4. Cyanobacteria.

Answer: 4. Cyanobacteria.

Question 77. The flowering plants originated in:

1. Cretaceous
2. Tertiary period
3. Triassic
4. Carboniferous.

Answer: 3. Triassic

Question 78. The study of the fossil plants is known as:

1. Palaeontology
2. Palaeobotany
3. Palynology
4. Palaeoanatomy.

Answer: 2. Palaeobotany

Question 79. Point out the correct statement regarding the evolution of the horse.

1. The premolars and molars increased in length while their roots became short
2. The brain became smaller
3. Ankles became low
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. The premolars and molars increased in length while their roots became short

Question 80. What is the recent example of the mass extinction of organisms?

1. Cycadofilicales
2. Dinosaurs
3. Tree ferns
4. Neanderthal man.

Answer: 4. Neanderthal man.

Question 81. Plants which are naturally fast disappearing from the scene are:

1. Cycads and Ginkgos
2. Tulips and Magnolias
3. Bombaxi and Bamboos
4. Rhododendrons and Rhizophores.

Answer: 1. Cycads and Ginkgos

Question 82. Find the odd man out:

1. The trunk of an elephant and the hand of a chimpanzee
2. Ginger and potato
3. Wings of bat and bird
4. Nails of human beings and claws of a cat.

Answer: 1. Trunk of an elephant and the hand of a chimpanzee

Question 83. Which of the following rules states that organisms have a tendency towards increase in size during their evolution?

1. Williston’s rule
2. Cope’s rule
3. Dollo’s rule
4. Hardy-Weinberg’s rule.

Answer: 2. Cope’s rule

Question 84. Different groups of plants (and also animals) have similar proteins. What is the type of evidence?

1. Physiological
2. Cytological
3. Genetical
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Physiological

Question 85. Match the following lists and give the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

1. 2 → 1→4→3
2. 1→2→3→4
3. 4→3→2→1
4. 3→2→4→1

Answer: 1. 2 →1 →4 →3

Question 86. Match the following lists and give the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

1. 1→2→3→4
2. 1→3→2→4
3. 4→3→2→1
4. 3→2→1→4

Answer: 2. 1→3→2→4

Question 87. An evolutionary trend in which there is a general degeneration and loss of organs is:

1. Retrogressive
2. Progressive
3. Vestigial
4. Stasignesis

Answer: 1. Retrogressive

Question 88. As per geological time scale, hominids evolved during:

1. Miocene
2. Oligocene
3. Pliocene
4. Pleistocene.

Answer: 3. Pliocene

Question 89. From which of the following did the modern horse called Equus arise in the early Cenozoic era?

1. Pliohippus
2. Merychippus
3. Orohippus
4. Eohippus.

Answer: 4. Eohippus.

Question 90. Analogous organs with similar external morphology are called:

1. Homoplastic
2. Heteroplastic
3. Heteromorphic
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 1. Homoplastic

Question 91. Stings develop from:

1. Last abdominal segment in honey bee and scorpion
2. Ovipositor in honey bees and scorpions
3. Last abdominal segment in honey bee and ovipositor in scorpion
4. Ovipositor in honey bee and last abdominal segment in scorpion.

Answer: 4. Ovipositor in honey bee and last abdominal segment in scorpion.

Question 92. In human beings, canine teeth are:

1. Useless
2. Required for tearing food parts
3. Chewing teeth
4. Used for nibbling food articles.

Answer: 2. Required for tearing food parts

Theory Of Evolution By Natural Selection

Question 1. The pioneers in the field of ‘Organic evolution’ are:

1. Darwin, Hugo de Vries, Lamarck, Huxley
2. Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries, Malthus, Darwin
3. Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, Malthus, De Vries
4. Darwin, Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, De Vries.

Answer: 2. Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries, Malthus, Darwin

Question 2. Fore-coming generations are less adaptive than these parental generations due to:

1. Natural selection
2. Mutation
3. Genetic drift
4. Adaptation

Answer: 2. Mutation

Question 3. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows similarity with the theory of inheritance of acquired characters, then what shall be correct according to it?

1. Useful organs become strong and developed while useless organs become extinct, these organs help in the struggle for survival
2. The size of organs increases with ageing
3. The development of organs is due to willpower
4. There should be some physical basis for inheritance.

Answer: 4. There should be some physical basis for inheritance.

evolution questions

Question 4. The frequency of an allele in an isolated population may change due to:

1. Genetic drift
2. Gene flow
3. Mutation
4. Natural selection.

Answer: 1. Genetic drift

Question 5. In Lederberg’s replica plating experiment what shall be first used to obtain streptomycin-resistant bacteria strain?

1. Minimal medium and streptomycin
2. Complete medium and streptomycin
3. Only minimal medium
4. Only a complete medium.

Answer: 2. Complete medium and streptomycin

Question 6. Industrial melanism is an example of:

1. Defensive adaptation of skin against UV radiation
2. Drug resistance
3. Darkening of skin due to smoke from industries
4. Protective resemblance with the surroundings.

Answer: 4. Protective resemblance with the surroundings.

Question 7. Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structure?

1. Organs appear only in the embryonic stage and disappear later in adulthood.
2. Organs with anatomical similarities but performing different functions
3. Organs with anatomical dissimilarities but performing the same function
4. Organs that have no function now but have an important function in the ancestor.

Answer: 4. Organs that have no function now but have an important function in the ancestor.

Question 8. Darwin in his “Natural Selection Theory” did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic evolution?

1. Discontinuous variations
2. Parasites and predators as natural enemies
3. Survival of fittest
4. Struggle for existence.

Answer: 1. Discontinuous variations

Question 9. Unit of Natural selection is:

1. Individual
2. Family
3. Species
4. Population.

Answer: 1. Individual

Question 10. Mule is a product of:

1. Breeding
2. Mutation
3. Intraspecific hybridisation
4. Interspecific hybridisation.

Answer: 4. Interspecific hybridisation.

questions about evolution

Question 11. The natural selection really means:

1. Struggle for existence
2. Differential reproduction
3. Survival of the fittest
4. Elimination of the unfit.

Answer: 3. Survival of the fittest

Question 12. According to the modern synthetic theory of evolution, organic evolution depends upon:

1. Mutation and Natural selection
2. Genetic recombination and Natural selection
3. Mutation, reproductive isolation and Natural selection
4. All of the above factors.

Answer: 4. All of the above factors.

Question 13. The most likely reason for the development of resistance against pesticides in insects damaging a crop is:

1. Directed mutation
2. Acquired heritable changes
3. Random mutations
4. Genetic recombination.

Answer: 3. Random mutations

Question 14. Geographic and reproductive isolation brings about:

1. Over-production
2. Extinction
3. Speciation
4. Competition.

Answer: 3. Speciation

Question 15. The term species was coined by:

1. Linnaeus
2. John Ray
3. Aristotle
4. Engler.

Answer: 4. Engler.

Question 16. Which of the following is called the Swell-Wright effect?

1. Gene pool
2. Gene flow
3. Genetic drift
4. Isolation.

Answer: 3. Genetic drift

Question 17. de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on:

1. Althea rosea
2. Drosophila melanogaster
3. Oenothera lamarckiana
4. Pisum sativum.

Answer: 3. Oenothera lamarckiana

Question 18. One of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution. It is:

1. Development of transgenic animals
2. Production of ‘dolly’ the sheep by cloning
3. Prevalence of pesticide-resistant insects
4. Development of organs from ‘stem cells’ for organ transplantation

Answer: 3. Prevalence of pesticide-resistant insects

Question 19. The phenomenon of industrial melanism demonstrates:

1. Natural selection
2. Induced mutation
3. Geographical isolation
4. Reproductive isolation.

Answer: 1. Natural selection

evolution notes class 12

Question 20. Which of the following evidence does not favour the Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired characters?

1. Absence of limbs in snakes
2. Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
3. Lack of pigment in cave-dwelling animals
4. Melanization in peppered moth in industrial areas.

Answer: 4. Melanization in peppered moths in industrial areas.

Question 21. Survival of the fittest was given by:

1. Darwin
2. Lamarck
3. Weismann
4. Herbert Spencer.

Answer: 4. Herbert Spencer.

Question 22. Using imprints from a plate with a complete medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you can select streptomycin-resistant mutants and prove that such mutations do not originate as adaptation. These imprints need to be used:

1. Only on plates with streptomycin
2. On plates with minimal medium
3. Only on plates without streptomycin
4. On plates with and without streptomycin.

Answer: 1. Only on plates with streptomycin

Question 23. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is known to be affected by gene flow genetic drift, mutation, genetic remobination and:

1. Evolution
2. Limiting factors
3. Natural selection
4. Saltation
5. Overproduction.

Answer: 3. Saltation

Question 24. At a particular locus, the frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.6 and that of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?

1. 0.16
2. 0.48
3. 0.36
4. 0.24.

Answer: 2. 0.48

Question 25. In a random mating population in equilibrium, which of the following brings about a change in gene frequency in a non-directional manner?

1. Mutations
2. Random drift
3. Selection
4. Migration.

Answer: 2. Random drift

Question 26. The biogenetic law of Haeckel is:

1. Omnis vivum e vivum
2. Omnis cellula e cellula
3. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
4. Phylogeny repeats ontogeny.

Answer: 3. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny

Question 27. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Genetic variability provides raw material for the operation of natural selection and reproductive isolation
2. Genetic variability is produced by somatic mutation
3. Somatic mutations are inherited
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Genetic variability provides the raw material for the operation of natural selection and reproductive isolation

Question 28. The objections to Darwin’s theory of natural selection is/are:

1. No differentiation between somatic and germinal variation
2. It fails to explain the role of discontinuous variation
3. It fails to explain the possible reason behind over-speciation
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. It fails to explain the possible reason behind over-speciation

Question 29. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as:

1. Phylogeny
2. Ancestry
3. Paleontology
4. Ontogeny.

Answer: 1. Phylogeny

evolution short notes class 12

Question 30. Which of the following disproved experimentally the concept of inheritance of acquired characters?

1. Lamarck
2. Weismann
3. Darwin
4. Oparin.

Answer: 2. Weismann

Question 31. The Hardy-Weinberg law of equilibrium was based on the following:

1. Random mating, selection, gene flow
2. Random mating, genetic drift, mutation
3. Non-random mating, mutation, gene flow
4. Random mating, no mutation, no gene flow and no genetic drift.

Answer: 4. Random mating, no mutation, no gene flow and no genetic drift.

Question 32. Peppered moth (Biston betularia) is an example of:

1. Transient Polymorphism And Disruptive Selection
2. Transient Polymorphism And Directional Selection
3. Balanced Polymorphism And Disruptive Selection
4. Balanced Polymorphism And Directional Selection

Answer: 2. Transient Polymorphism And Directional Selection

Question 33. Darwin’s finches are a good example of:

1. Convergent evolution
2. Adaptive radiation
3. Connecting link
4. Industrial melanism.

Answer: 1. Convergent evolution

Question 34. Micro-evolution can be best defined as the evolution:

1. Below species level
2. Below genus level
3. Above genus level
4. Origin of family.

Answer: 2. Below genus level

Question 35. Modern synthetic theory of evolution is not based on:

1. Genetic mutation
2. Recombination and natural selection
3. Reproductive isolation
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 36. The tendency of the population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by:

1. Lack of migration
2. Lack of mutations
3. Lack of random mating
4. Random mating

Answer: 3. Lack of random mating

Question 37. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moths proves that:

1. The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over the lighter form in an industrial area
2. The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial areas or non-polluted area
3. Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
4. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation.

Answer: 4. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation.

Question 38. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in:

1. Intraspecific competition
2. Interspecific competition
3. Predation on one another
4. Mutualism.

Answer: 1. Intraspecific competition

Question 39. Adaptive radiation refers to

1. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
2. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
3. Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
4. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation.

Answer: 4. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation.

Question 40. Select the correct statement from the following:

1. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
2. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae
3. Mutations are random and directional
4. Darwinian variations are small and directionless.

Answer: 1. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature

Question 41. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is:

1. Preventing Speciation
2. Speciation through reproductive isolation
3. Random creation of new species
4. No change in the isolated fauna.

Answer: 2. Speciation through reproductive isolation

Question 42. Match the following:

The correct match is:

1. a = 3, b = 2, c = 5, d = 4, e = 1
2. a = 3, b = 4, c = 2, d = 5, e = 1
3. a = 3, b = 4, c = 5, d = 2, e = 1
4. a = 3. b = 5, c = 4, d = 1, e = 2.

Answer: 3. a = 3, b = 4, c = 5, d = 2, e = 1

Question 43. Match the scientists and their contributions to the field of evolution.

1. 1—D, 2—C, 3—A, 4—E, 5—B
2. 1—D, 2—C, 3—E, 4—A, 5—F
3. 1—D, 2—C, 3—E, 4—C, 5—A
4. 1—B, 2—C, 3—A, 4—E, 5—B
5. 1—C, 2—D, 3—A, 4—E, 5—B.

Answer: 1. 1—D, 2—C, 3—A, 4—E, 5—B

Question 44. Which one of the following scientist’s name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him:

Answer: 4

Question 45. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary histories evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge is called:

1. Convergent evolution
2. Non-random evolution
3. Adaptive radiation
4. Natural selection

Answer: 1. Convergent evolution

Question 46. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as:

1. Genetic drift
2. Random mating
3. Genetic load
4. Genetic flow

Answer: 1. Genetic drift

Question 47. According to Darwin. The organic evolution is due to:

1. Interspecific competition
2. Competition within closely related species
3. Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species
4. Intraspecific competition

Answer: 4. Intraspecific competition

Class 12 Biology Evolution

Question 1. Mechanical isolation in plants is illustrated with an example of:

1. Oxalis
2. Ficus
3. Salvia
4. Calotropis.

Answer: 4. Calotropis.

Question 2. Speciation in two adjacent populations refers to;

1. Sympatry
2. Allopatry
3. Population isolation
4. Parapatric speciation.

Answer: 4. Parapatric speciation.

Question 3. Which of the following is not a part of Lamarck’s theory of evolution?

1. Use and disuse of organ
2. Variation
3. Inheritance of acquired characters
4. Environmental effect.

Answer: 2. Variation

Question 4. Who wrote the famous book “Philosophie Zoologique.”

1. Darwin
2. Morgan
3. Wallace
4. J. Lamarck.

Answer: 4. J. Lamarck.

Question 5. According to Darwin, the different populations of the same species are referred to as:

1. Varieties
2. Subspecies
3. Cultivars
4. Incipient species.

Answer: 3. Cultivars

evolution mcq

Question 6. Acquired characters are inherited. Which of the following scientists did not support the idea?

1. T.H. Morgan
2. A. Weismann
3. T.H. Huxley
4. De Vries.

Answer: 2. A. Weismann

Question 7. A staunch supporter of Neo-Lamarckism is:

1. A. Weismann
2. T.H. Morgan
3. C. Darwin
4. Hugo de Vries.

Answer: 2. T.H. Morgan

Question 8. Darwin’s theory of natural selection:

1. Was the first theory of evolution
2. Failed to explain the sources of evolution
3. Account for fossils
4. Has been replaced completely.

Answer: 2. Failed to explain the sources of evolution

Question 9. The concept of evolution through natural selection remains incomplete without:

1. Variations
2. Survival of fittest
3. Struggle for existence
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Question 10. Who performed famous inbreeding experiments to expose the inefficiency of Darwinism?

1. Johanson
2. Dobzhansky
3. Sympson
4. Ernst Myar.

Answer: 1. Johanson

Question 11. Adaptive radiation is:

1. Migration from centres of dispersal
2. Tlic use of radioactive isotopes in biological research
3. Radiation used to destroy cancer
4. Evolution from an ancestral type to a diverse form suited to different environments.

Answer: 4. Evolution from an ancestral type to a diverse form suited to different environments.

Question 12. Two different groups evolve in such a way so as to produce similar traits. This is an example of:

1. Parallel evolution
2. Divergent evolution
3. Convergent evolution
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 3. Convergent evolution

Question 13. Marine arthropods were preadapted to terrestrial life by having:

1. No coelom
2. Exoskeleton
3. Closed circulatory system
4. No body segmentation.

Answer: 2. Exoskeleton

Question 14. Reproductive isolation between segments of a single population is termed:

1. Allopatry
2. Population
3. Divergence sympatry
4. Disruptive isolation.

Answer: 3. Divergence sympatry

Question 15. “An organ is used well, it will develop better and if it is not used, it is likely to become vestigial”. This was given by:

1. Darwin
2. De Vries
3. Lamarck
4. Mendel.

Answer: 3. Lamarck

Question 16. Blood precipitation tests are useful in:

1. Blood group
2. Animal relation
3. Antigen-antibody reaction
4. Immunity.

Answer: 2. Animal relation

evolution class 12 mcq

Question 17. Fitness, according to Darwin refers ultimately to:

1. Dominance over others
2. Ability to defend
3. Number of offsprings
4. Strategy for obtaining food.

Answer: 3. Number of offsprings

Question 18. Nowadays Lamarckian theory is being reviewed in the light of the modern concept of evolution under the heading Neo-Lamarckism. Who proved that the genes are influenced by physical and chemical factors so that they bring remarkable changes to the offspring:

1. Muller
2. Lindsci
3. Hoffman
4. Haeckel.

Answer: 1. Muller

Question 19. The struggle for existence is a consequence of:

1. Innate competitive tendencies
2. Territories and dominance hierarchies
3. Each organism leaves behind more offspring than needed to replace it
4. The inevitable difficulty of coping with climatic conditions.

Answer: 4. The inevitable difficulty of coping with climatic conditions.

Question 20. When in the nucleus of some animal cell the number of chromosomes is increased or decreased, and a change takes place in the genes, then the event is called:

1. Hereditary characters
2. Adaptation
3. Mutation
4. None.

Answer: 3. Mutation

Question 21. In convergent evolution:

1. Unrelated organisms look alike under environmental influence
2. Related organisms look distinct
3. The similarity in appearance is not caused by environmental factors
4. The environment has no role.

Answer: 1. Unrelated organisms look alike under environmental influence

Question 22. The aspect most profoundly coupled with natural selection is:

1. Preservation of favoured races
2. Adaptability of every single species
3. Enhanced fecundity of all organisms
4. Lesser role of environmental factors.

Answer: 1. Preservation of favoured races

Question 23. The modem scientific theory is redefined:

1. Natural selection
2. Theory of natural selection
3. Theory of special creation
4. Scala Naturae.

Answer: 2. Theory of natural selection

Question 24. Natural selection acts on an organism:

1. Dominant alleles
2. Recessive homozygous alleles
3. Combined genotype
4. Phenotype.

Answer: 4. Phenotype.

Question 25. Microevolution concerns the occurrence of:

1. Tribes
2. Races
3. Sub-species
4. Genera.

Answer: 3. Sub-species

Question 26. Microevolution changes:

1. Genetic equilibrium
2. Dominant trait
3. Gene pool
4. Gene occurrence.

Answer: 1. Genetic equilibrium

Question 27. Neo-Darwinism believes that new species develop through:

1. Mutations
2. Hybridisation
3. Mutations with natural selection
4. Continuous variations with natural selection.

Answer: 3. Mutations with natural selection

Question 28. The two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution are:

1. Fitness
2. Branching descent
3. Natural selection
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3).

Question 29. Distantly related organisms with similar traits have experienced:

1. Co-evolution
2. Convergent evolution
3. Divergent evolution
4. Parallel evolution.

Answer: 2. Convergent evolution

Question 30. “Darwin’s theory of Natural Selection” was objected to, because it:

1. Stresses open inter-specific competition
2. Explains adaptations of certain inherited characters
3. Stresses upon slow and small variations.
4. Explains that natural calamities take a heavy annual toll on lives.

Answer: 3. Stresses upon slow and small variations.

Question 31. Parallelism is:

1. Adaptive divergence in evolution
2. Adaptive convergence of widely different species in evolution
3. Adaptive convergence of closely related species in evolution
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Adaptive convergence of closely related species in evolution

Question 32. The Hardy-Weinberg Law states that when two alleles are considered:

1. Dominant alleles will always be more frequent in the population than recessive alleles
2. Heterozygotes will be twice as likely as homozygotes in a population
3. Members of adjacent populations are not able to interbreed with one another
4. Allelic frequencies cannot change in a large population unless one is at a selective advantage over the other or mating is non-random.

Answer: 4. Allelic frequencies cannot change in a large population unless one is at a selective advantage over the other or mating is non-random.

Question 33. The Hardy-Weinberg Law allows us to predict that:

1. Sexual reproduction is necessary for evolution
2. Sexual reproduction may be a cause of evolution
3. Sexual reproduction plays no role in evolution
4. Sexual reproduction will cause evolution if individuals prefer mates with one genotype over those with other genotypes.

Answer: 4. Sexual reproduction will cause evolution if individuals prefer mates with one genotype over those with other genotypes.

Question 34. The change of lighter coloured variety of peppered moth, Riston betularia to its darker variety (carbonara) is due to:

1. Mutation of a single Mendelian gene for survival in the smoke-laden industrial environment
2. Deletion of a segment of a gene due to industrial pollution
3. Industrial carbon deposited on the wings of moths results in the darker variety
4. Translocation of a block of genes in chromosomes in response to heavy carbons.

Answer: 1. Mutation of a single Mendelian gene for survival in the smoke-laden industrial environment

Question 35. In evolution, change mutation occurs in:

1. Protoplasm
2. Germplasm DNA
3. RNA
4. Nucleus.

Answer: 2. Germplasm DNA

Question 36. Genetic drift is most important in which situation?

1. Gene flow in a cline
2. Polymorphism
3. Small populations
4. Breeding of flying insects.

Answer: 3. Small populations

Question 37. Genetic drift is more likely to cause evolution in a small population because:

1. Mating is non-random in small populations
2. Random events are more apt to happen in small populations
3. There is no natural selection in small populations
4. Deviations from statistical averages are more likely to be seen in small populations than in large ones.

Answer: 4. Deviations from statistical averages are more likely to be seen in small populations than in large ones.

Question 38. Selection will not eliminate a lethal recessive allele from a large population of diploid organisms because:

1. There will always be some heterozygote carrier for the allele
2. Gene fixation will occur in the population
3. Hetcrozygotcs arc at a selective advantage
4. The allele will have some good effects and these will become dominant.

Answer: 1. There will always be some heterozygote carrier for the allele

Question 39. The most likely reason for the development of resistance against pesticides in insect-damaging crops is:

1. Genetic recombination
2. Acquired heritable changes
3. Directed mutations
4. Random mutations.

Answer: 2. Acquired heritable changes

Question 40. The theory of Neo-Lamarckism is dependent on:

1. Mutation and natural selection
2. Mutation
3. Variation
4. Heredity.

Answer: 1. Mutation and natural selection

Enzymes Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 1. The enzymes that break up starch into sugar are called:

1. Hydrolase
2. Amylase
3. Lipase
4. Nucleases.

Answer: 2. Amylase

Question 2. Enzymes are named after their substrate by adding a suffix:

1. – In
2. – Ase
3. – Os
4. – Sin.

Answer: 2. – Ase

Question 3. Apoenzyme is :

1. Protein
2. Carbohydrates
3. Vitamin
4. Amino acid.

Answer: 1. Protein

Question 4. Co-enzyme is :

1. Always a protein
2. Always a vitamin
3. Often a vitamin
4. Often a protein

Answer: 3. Often a vitamin

Question 5. The rate of most of the enzyme-catalyzed reactions changes with pH. As the pH increases, this rate:

1. Reaches a maximum then decreases
2. Reaches a minimum then decreases
3. Increases
4. Decreases.

Answer: 1. Reaches a maximum then decreases

Question 6. Co-enzymes can function :

1. In association with an apoenzyme
2. Independently of the apoenzyme
3. In association with vitamin
4. In association with a protein.

Answer: 1. In association with an apoenzyme

carbohydrates questions

Question 7. The enzymes which break up nucleic acids into nucleotides are called:

1. Nucleases
2. Amylases
3. Lipase
4. Protease.

Answer: 1. Nucleases

Question 8. Which mineral element is essential for the activity of enzyme nitrate reductase:

1. Molybdenum
2. Iron
3. Zinc
4. Calcium

Answer: 1. Molybdenum

Question 9. Most vitamins function as :

1. Holoenzyme
2. Enzymes
3. Hormones
4. Co-enzymes

Answer: 4. Co-enzymes

Question 10. Stoppage of the biochemical process by the product of a step is known as:

1. Negative inhibition
2. Endproductinhibition
3. Feedback inhibition
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 11. Which of the following is the best evidence for the lock and key theory of enzyme action?

1. A11 isolated enzymes have been identified as proteins
2. Compounds similar in structure to the substrate inhibit the reaction
3. Enzymes are found in living organisms and speed up certain reactions
4. Enzymes determine the direction of a reaction

Answer: 2. Compounds similar in structure to the substrate inhibits the reaction

Question 12. Enzymes generally have :

1. Same pH and temperature options
2. Same pH but different temperature options
3. Different pH but same temperature optima
4. Different pH and different temperature optima

Answer: 3. Different pH but same temperature optima

Question 13. The term feedback refers to

1. The effect of substrate on the rate of enzymatic reaction
2. The effect of end product on the rate of enzymatic reaction
3. The effect of enzyme concentration or its rate of reaction
4. The effect of an external compound on the rate of enzymatic reaction.

Answer: 2. The effect of the end product on the rate of enzymatic reaction

Question 14. Near the freezing point, an enzyme is :

1. Killed
2. Slightliz activated
3. Inactivated
4. Unaltected

Answer: 3. Inactivated

Question 15. Which of the following statements is true about enzymes?

1. Is altered permanently in the reaction it catalyses
2. Lowers the energy of activation of a reaction
3. Makes the equilibrium n-lore favorable for the organism
4. Lowers the energy of the product and increases the energy of the reactant.

Answer: 2. Lowers the energy of activation of a reaction

protein parts of enzyme is known as 

Question 16. Enzymes, vitamins, and hormones have one thing in common:

1. Au is synthesized in organisms
2. All are proteins
3. Al1 aids in regulating metabolism
4. All enhance oxidative metabolism.

Answer: 3. Al1 aids in regulating metabolism

Question 17. Which energy is needed to digest food reserves in castor seeds?

1. Lipase
2. Proteases
3. Amylase
4. Lactase.

Answer: 1. Lipase

Question 18. Which of the following is the best evidence for the template theory of enzyme action?

1. Compounds similar in structure to the substrate inhibit the reaction
2. Enzymes speed up the reactions by definite amounts
3. Enzymes determine the direction of a reaction
4. Enzymes are found in living organisms and increase the rate of certain reactions.

Answer: 1. Compounds similar in structure to the substrate inhibits the reaction

Question 19. Nitrate reductase enzyme forms :

1. N₂
2. Amino acids
3. NO¯²
4. NO‾³

Answer: 3. NO-2

Question 20. In plants enzymes are present :

1. Only in flowers
2. Only in leaves
3. In all the living cells of the plant body
4. Only in storage organ.

Answer: 3. In a1l the living cells of the plant body

Question 21. Which of the following lacks enzymes?

1. Algae
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria
4. Virus.

Answer: 4. Virus.

Question 22. In the cell, digestive enzymes are mostly in :

1. Ysosornes
2. Cel1wal1
3. Ribosomes
4. Chromosome.

Answer: 1. Ysosornes

Question 23. Which of the following is iron-porphyrin complex?

1. Cytochrome
2. Fad
3. Co-a
4. Nad

Answer: 1. Cytochrome

Question 24. Fad or fmn is a co-enzyme. Which vitamin is incorporated into its structure?

1. Vitamin c
2. Vitamin B1
3. Vitamin B6
4. Vitamin B2

Answer: 4. Vitamin B.

Question 25. The ratio of the enzyme to the substrate molecule can be as high as:

1. 1: 1000
2. 1: 100,000
3. 1: 1000,000
4. 1: 50,000.

Answer: 3. 1: 1000,000

questions on carbohydrates

Question 26. Lock and key hypothesis to explain the action of enzymatic action was given by :

1. Kogl
2. Fischer
3. Miller
4. Lederberg and Tatum.

Answer: 2. Fischer

Question 27. Enzymes with the same function and different molecular structures are called:

1. Isomerases
2. Zymases
3. Isoenzymes
4. Coenzymes.

Answer: 3. Isoenzymes

Question 28. The enzyme that removes the hydrogen from a substrate is:

1. Decarboxylase
2. Dehydrogenase
3. Protease
4. Lipase.

Answer: 2. Dehydrogenase

Question 29. Which of the following is not true for enzymes?

1. Colloidal nature
2. Used up in the biochemical reaction
3. Affected by the change in temperature
4. Lowers the activation energy.

Answer: 2. Used up in the biochemical reaction

Question 30. Zyrnogen is defined as :

1. An enzyme inhibitor
2. Highly reactive state of the enzyme
3. An inactive proenzyme.
4. Complex formed of enzyme and substrate

Answer: 3. An inactive proenzyme.

Question 31. Which of the following enzymes would change glucose-6 phosphate to glucose 1-phosphate?

1. Transferase
2. Isomerase
3. Lyases
4. Glucose phosphatases.

Answer: 2. Isomerase

Question 32. Maximum enzyme activity is observed at :

1. Acidic ph
2. Neutral ph
3. Basic ph
4. Optimum ph.

Answer: 4. Optimum ph.

Question 33. Conversion of pepsinogen into pepsin is :

1. Intramolecular rearrangement
2. Breaking of hydrogen bonds
3. Covalent modifications
4. Polymerization

Answer: 3. Covalent modifications

Question 34. The following reaction is characteristic of what type of enzyme?

1. Peroxidases
2. Catalases
3. Dehydrogenases
4. Copper-containing oxidases.

Answer: 1. Peroxidases

Question 35. Number of substrate molecules changed per minute by a molecule of the enzyme is called:

1. Reaction index
2. Turn over number
3. Deficiency number
4. Optimum number.

Answer: 2. Turn over number

Question 36. During the enzyme action:

1. The value of k is low
2. The value of k1 is low
3. The value of k- is high
4. The value of k, is high.

Answer: 2. Value of k1 is low

Question 37. Oxidative enzymes mostly occur in :

1. Lysosomes
2. Mitochondria
3. Ribosomes
4. Golgi bodies.

Answer: 2. Mitochondria

Question 38. The substrate concentration at which half of the maximum velocity is achieved is termed :

1. Sumner’s constant
2. Michaelis constant
3. Buchner constant
4. Fischer constant.

Answer: 2. Michaelis constant

Question 39. An enzyme brings about :

1. Reduction in activation energy
2. Increase in reaction time
3. Increase in activation energy
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Reduction in activation energy

Question 40. Enzymes exist in the cells as :

1. Solid
2. Crystals
3. Colloid
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Colloid