Question 1. One End Of Each Semicircular Is Enlarged to form A Small Rounded Structure Called

1. Ampulla
2. Lagena
3. Crislnc
4. Pars Basilaris.

Answer: 1. Ampulla

Question 2. Extraordinary Hearing Ability Is Possessed By :

1. Owl
2. Mosquito
3. Frog
4. Bat.

Answer: 4. Bat.

sense organs definition

Question 3. In Man, The Vision Is :

1. Uniocular
2. Binocular
3. Mosaic
4. Opposition Type.

Answer: 2. Binocular

Question 4. The Sense Of Hearing Is Located In The :

1. Semi-Circular Canals
2. Organ Of Corti
3. Eustachian Tube
4. Ampulla.

Answer: 2. Organ Of Corti

Question 5. The Nose Is A :

1. Mechanoreceptors
2. Chemoreceptor
3. Thermal Receptor
4. Cold Receptor.

Answer: 2. Chemoreceptor

HBSE Class 11 Biology Sense Organs

Question 6. The Chemoreceptors Are The :

1. Organs Of Smell
2. Organs Of Hearing
3. Organs Of Smell And Taste
4. Organs Of Touch.

Answer: 3. Organs Of Smell And Taste

Question 7. Proprio -Receptors Respond To :

1. Mechanical Stimuli
2. Chemical Stimuli
3. Odour
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 1. Mechanical Stimuli

Question 8. Naked Dendrites Are Receptors For :

1. Taste
2. Touch
3. Smell
4. Odour.

Answer: 2. Touch

Question 9. Receptors Of Deep Pressure Present In Deep Layers Of Skin Are :

1. Krause’s End Bulbs
2. Meissner’S Corpuscles
3. Pacinian Corpuscles
4. Corpuscles Of Ruffini.

Answer: 3. Pacinian Corpuscles

sensory organs function

Question 20. Jacobson’s Organ Is Concerned With :

1. Smell
2. Burrowing
3. Touch
4. Sight.

Answer: 1. Smell

Human Sense Organs Diagram

Question 21. The Ear Pinna In Mammals Has :

1. Protective Action
2. Sound Collecting Action
3. Sound Perceiving Action
4. No Function.

Answer: 2. Sound Collecting Action

Question 22. In Frog, The Taste Buds Are Confined To :

1. Tongue
2. Buccal Cavity
3. Tongue And Roof Of Buccal Cavity
4. Tongue And Floor Of Buccal Cavity.

Answer: 3. Tongue And Roof Of Buccal Cavity

Question 23. Receptors Which Have Sensitive To Pain Are Called :

1. Tangoivceptors
2. Algesiivceptors
3. Frigidonvcplors
4. Theo receptors.

Answer: 2. Algesiivceptors

Question 24. The Maintenance Of Proper Balance in Daring Athletic Activity Is Done By :

1. Cochlea
2. Auditory Canal
3. Tympanic Membrane
4. Semicircular Canal.

Answer: 4. Semicircular Canal

five organs in the human body

Question 25. In Comparison To The Internal Ear Of a Frog, The Internal Of a Rabbit Has:

1. A Smaller Cochlea
2. A Longer Coiled Cochlea
3. Fused Utriculus And Sacculus
4. No Sacculus.

Answer: 2. A Longer Coiled Cochlea

Question 26. Ear Is Most Sensitive To :

1. 20 Cycles /Sec
2. 1000 Cycles /Sec
3. 10,000 Cycles /Sec
4. 40,000 Cycles/Sec.

Answer: 2. Increased Pressure Of Fluid In The Eye Ball

Question 27. Glaucoma Is An Eye Disease Arising From :

1. Increased Pressure Of Fluid In The Eye Ball
2. Elongation Of Eye Ball
3. Shortening Of Eye Ball
4. Opacity Of The Retina.

Answer: 1. Increased Pressure Of Fluid In The Eye Ball

what are sense organs how are they useful to us

Question 28. Which One Of The Following Is The Function Of Iris In The Eye Of Frog?

1. Alters The Size Of Pupil
2. Moves The Lens Forward
3. Moves The Lens Backward
4. Brings About The Movement Of Nictitating Membrane.

Answer: 1. Alters The Size Of Pupil

Question 29. Human Eye Lens Is :

1. Spherical And Can Be Moved Forward
2. Biconvex And Cannot Be Moved Forward
3. Spherical And Cannot Be Moved Forward
4. Biconvex And Can Be Moved Forward.

Answer: 2. Biconvex And Cannot Be Moved Forward

Five Sense Organs and Their Functions

Question 30. A Molecule Cannot Be Tasted Or Smelled Until It Has Been :

1. Converted Into A Protein
2. Converted Into A Neurotransmitter
3. Grouped Into A Multimolecular Complex
4. Dissolved In A Liquid.

Answer: 4. Dissolved In A Liquid.

Question 31. The Receptors For Both Taste And Smell Are :

1. Mechanoreceptors
2. Chemoreceptors
3. Thermoreceptors
4. Electromagnetic Receptors.

Answer: 2. Chemoreceptors

Question 32. The Taste Receptors Of A Bottom-Feeding Fish Are Located :

1. All Over Its Body Surface
2. Within Taste Buds Near Its Fins
3. Within Taste Buds On Its Gills
4. Within Its Mouth.

Answer: 1. All Over Its Body Surface

Question 33. Baroreceptors Or Pressure Receptors Tyre Present In The Walls Of:

1. Arteries
2. Veins
3. Right Atrium
4. All The Above.

Answer: 4. All The Above.

Question 34. The Taste Receptors Of All Terrestrial Vertebrates Are Located :

1. All Over The Body Surface
2. Within Taste Buds In The Trachea
3. Within The Nasal Cavity
4. Within Taste Buds In The Mouth.

Answer: 4. Within Taste Buds In The Mouth.

Structure and Function of Sense Organs

Question 35. Most Of What We “Taste” In Food Is Actually :

1. Imagined By Our Cerebral Cortex
2. A Memory From Childhood, When We Had More Taste Receptors
3. Odours
4. Normal Components Of Saliva.

Answer: 3. Odours

Question 36. The Taste Receptors Of A Bottom Feeding Fish Are Located :

1. Within Taste Buds In The Mouth
2. Within The Taste Buds In Trachea
3. Within The Nasal Cavity
4. All Over Its Body Surface.

Answer: 4. Within The Nasal Cavity

Question 37. Camera Eyes Are Found In :

1. Insects
2. Spiders
3. Birds
4. Crab.

Answer: 3. Birds

Question 38. Which Of The Following Types Of Eyes Has The Widest Range Of Vision?

1. Ocelli
2. Camera Eyes
3. Compound Eyes Of Insects
4. Simple Eyes Of Insects.

Answer: 2. Camera Eyes

Question 39. Well Developed Sonar System Is Present In :

1. Monkeys
2. Crocodiles
3. Bats
4. Pigeon.

Answer: 3. Bats

Sense Organs Class 11 Notes

Question 40. The Eye Of The Following Group Resembles The Vertebrate Eye:

1. Cephalopoda
2. Bivalvia
3. Gastropoda
4. Pelecypoda.

Answer: 1. Cephalopoda

Question 41. The Coats Of Eyeball Are :

A. Sclera

B. Retina

C. Conjunctiva

D. Otolith Membrane.

Answer Codes :

1. A And C Are Correct
2. B And D Are Correct
3. A And B Are Correct
4. A, B And C Are Correct.

Answer: 3. A And B Are Correct

Question 42. A 22-year student Goes To His Ophthalmologist. He Has a Problem In Reading Books Because He Is Not Able To Contract His :

1. Iris
2. Pupil
3. Ciliary Muscles
4. Suspcusoty Ligament.

Answer: 3. Ciliary Muscles

Question 43. The Ivivcptum Ot Sound In Mammals Is By Stimulation Of Mechanoreceptors Located In :

1. Saculus
2. Semicircular Canal
3. Organ Of Coni
4. Reissner’s Membrane.

Answer: 3. Organ Of Coni

Question 44. Which Statement About Olfaction Is Not True?

1. Dogs Are Unusual Among Mammals, In That They Depend More On Olfaction Than On Vision, As Their Dominant Sensory Modality.
2. Olfactory Stimuli Are Recognised By The Interaction Between The Stimulus And A Specific Macromolecule On Olfactory Hairs
3. The Greater The Number Of Action Potentials Generated By An Olfactory Receptor, The Greater The Intensity Of Die Perceived Smell
4. The Perception Of Different Smells Results From The Activation Of Different Combinations Of Olfactory Receptors.

Answer: 3. The Greater The Number Of Action Potentials Generated By An Olfactory Receptor, The Greater The Intensity Of Die Perceived Smell

Question 45. The Membrane That Gives Us The Ability To Discriminate Different Pitches Of Sound Is The :

1. Round Window
2. Tympanic Membrane
3. Tectorial Membrane
4. Basilar Membrane.

Answer: 3. Tectorial Membrane

Question 46. The Colour In Vision Results From The :

1. Different Absorption Of Wavelengths Of Light By Different Classes Of Rods
2. Ability Of Each Cone To Absorb All Wavelengths Of Light Equally
3. Lens Of The Eye Acting Like A Prism And Separating The Different Wavclenphts Hy Light
4. Three Different Isomers Of Opsin In Different Classes Of Cone Cells.

Answer: 4. Three Different Isomers Of Opsin In Different Classes Of Cone Cells.

Question 47. During Accommodation For Near Vision :

1. Images From The Distant Objects Arc Focussed Behind The Retina
2. The Focussing Power Of The Lens Is Increased
3. The Sympathetic Nerves To The Eye Arc Activated
4. The Pupil Does Not Constrict.

Answer: 2. The Focussing Power Of The Lens Is Increased

Question 48. Which Of The Following Is Incorrect?

1. Perception Is The Conscious Awareness And Interpretation Of Sensation
2. Dancers And Sports Persons Can Maintain Their Proper Body Position By Using Their Internal Sense Of Balance
3. Each Eye Weighs Only 7 Gms
4. Embedded In The Tarsal Plate Of the Eyelid Is a Row Of Elongated Modified Sebaceous Glands Called Meibomian Glands.

Answer: 2. Dancers And Sports Persons Can Maintain Their Proper Body Position By Using Their Internal Sense Of Balance

Question 49. Which Of The Following Is Not Correct Pairing?

1. Glands Of Zeis – Modified Sebaceous Glands (Oil Glands)
2. Glands Of Moll – Modified Sweat Glands (Sudori¬Ferous Glands)
3. Meibomian Glands – Modified Sebaceous Glands
4. Harderian Glands – Modified Sweat Glands.

Answer: 4. Harderian Glands – Modified Sweat Glands.

Question 50. Rhabdome Is Found In The Eyes Of:

1. Insects
2. Annelids
3. Rabbit
4. Frog.

Answer: 1. Insects

Question 1. Two non-allelic genes produce the new phenotype when present together but fail to do so independently, then it is called:

1. Epistasis
2. Polygene
3. Non-complementary gene
4. Complementary gene.

Answer: 4. Complementary gene

Question 2. Two individuals with similar external appearance but different genetic make up have the similar:

1. Genotype
2. Phenotype
3. Hctcrozygotc
4. Homozygote.

Answer: 2. Phenotype

Question 3. Two crosses between the same pair of genotypes or phenotypes in which the sources of the gametes arc reversed in one cross, is known as:

1. Test cross
2. Reciprocal cross
3. Dihybrid cross
4. Reverse cross.

Answer: 2. Reciprocal cross

mcq on principles of inheritance and variation

Question 4. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel are now known to be located on how many different chromosomes?

1. Seven
2. Six
3. Five
4. Four

Answer: 4. Four

mcq on principles of inheritance and variation

Question 5. Which one of the following traits of garden pea studied by Mendel was a recessive feature?

1. Round seed shape
2. Axial flower position
3. Green seed colour
4. Green pod colour

Answer: 3. Green seed colour

Question 6. When a cluster of genes shows linkage behaviour they :

1. Induce cell division
2. Do not show a chromosome map,
3. Show recombination during meiosis
4. Do not show independent assortment.

Answer: 4. Do not show independent assortment

HBSE Class 12 Biology Heredity And Variation Notes

Question 7. Alleles represent :

1. Different forms of a gene
2. Same loci on homologous chromosomes
3. Two or more forms
4. All the above

Answer: 4. All the above

inheritance and variation mcq

Question 8. If a cross between two plants gives 50% tall and 50% dwarf progeny, then the parent’s genotype is:

1. Tt x Tt
2. Tt x tt
3. TT x tt
4. TT x Tt.

Answer: 2. Tt x tt

Question 9. How many different types of gametes can be formed by F, progeny, resulting from the cross AABBCC × aabbcc?

1. 3
2. 8
3. 27
4. 64.

Answer: 2. 8

Question 10. A person with blood group A has :

1. Antigen A and antibody b
2. Antigen B and antibody a
3. Antigen A and antibody B
4. No antibody and no antigen.

Answer: 1. Antigen A and antibody b

Question 11. Self-fertilising trihybrid plants form :

1. Eight different gametes and 64 different zygotes
2. Four different gametes and sixteen different zygotes
3. Eight different gametes and sixteen different zygotes
4. Eight different gametes and thirty-two different zygotes.

Answer: 1. Eight different gametes and 64 different zygotes

Mendelian Genetics Class 12 HBSE Important Questions

Question 12. When a tall and red flowered individual is crossed with a dwarf and white flowered individual, the phenotype of the progeny will be :

1. Homozygous tall and red
2. Heterozygous tall and red
3. Homozygous tall and white
4. Homozygous dwarf and white

Answer: 2. Heterozygous tall and red

Question 13. Genetic counsellors can identify heterozygous individuals by

1. Height of individuals
2. Colour of individuals
3. Screening procedures
4. All of these

Answer: 4. All of these

Question 14. If a homozygous red-flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous white-flowered plant, the offspring would be :

1. All red flowered
2. Half red flowered
3. Half white flowered
4. All white flowered.

Answer: 1. All red flowered

biology objective question in english

Question 15. Which Mendelian idea is depicted by a cross in which the F, generation resembles both the parents?

1. Law of dominance
2. Co-dominance
3. Inheritance of one gene
4. Incomplete dominance

Answer: 3. Inheritance of one gene

Question 16. Given below is a pedigree chart of a family with five children. It shows the inheritance of attached earlobes as opposed to the free ones. The squares represent the male individuals and circles the female individuals. Which one of the following conclusions drawn is correct?

1. The parents are homozygous recessive
2. The trait is Y-linked
3. The parents are homozygous dominant
4. The parents are heterozygous.

Answer: 4. The parents are heterozygous

inheritance and variation mcq

Question 17. Which of the following terms represents a pair of contrasting characters?

1. Allele
2. Phenotype
3. Homozygous
4. Heterozygous.

Answer: 1. Allele

Question 18. Following are the statements, which are either true or false. Examine them and find out the incorrect answer. Mendel had selected Pisum sativum (garden pea) as his experi¬ mental tool because :

1. The hybrids remain infertile
2. The plants can be self-fertilized
3. These small herbaceous plants can be easily cultivated
4. There are several pairs of contrasting characters of allotrophic traits.

Answer: 4. There are several pairs of contrasting characters of allotrophic traits

Laws Of Inheritance Class 12 HBSE Biology

Question 19. Cross between a homozygous black rough (BBRR) guinea pig and a homozygous white smooth guinea pig (bbrr) produced F, progeny all black and rough. Assuming that the black colour is dominant over white skin rough skin is dominant over smooth skin and the two genes involved are present on different chromosomes. The percentage of F₂ individuals who are heterozygous for both gene pairs would be :

1. 25%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 35%.

Answer: 1. 25%

Question 20. The genetic ratio of 9:3:3:1 is due to:

1. Segregation of characters
2. Crossing over of chromosomes
3. Independent assortment of genes
4. Homologous pairing between chromosomes

Answer: 3. Independent assortment of genes

Question 21. When a cross is made between two species of the same genus, then the cross is known as :

1. Intraspecific hybridization
2. Interspecific hybridization
3. Intergeneric hybridization
4. Intervarietal hybridization.

Answer: 2. Interspecific hybridization

Question 22. Pure tall plants are crossed with pure dwarf plants. In the F₁ generation, all plants were tall. All the plants of the F₁ generation were selfed and the ratio of tall to dwarf plants obtained was 3:1. This is called :

1. Dominance
2. Inheritance
3. Codominance
4. Heredity

Answer: 1. Dominance

Genetic Disorders Class 12 HBSE Biology

Question 23. Epistasis is the:

1. One pair of genes can completely mask the expression of another pair of genes
2. One pair of genes independently controls a particular phenotype
3. One pair of genes enhances the phenotype expression of another pair of gene
4. Many genes collectively control a particular phenotype.

Answer: 1. One pair of genes can completely mask the expression of another pair of genes

Question 24. When one gene hides the effect of another gene, the interaction factor is known as:

1. Epistatic factor
2. Duplicate factor
3. Complementary factor
4. Supplementary factor

Answer: 1. Epistatic factor

Question 25. A genetically dwarf plant made tall by use of Gibberellin was crossed with a plant purely tall. Then the progenies would be :

1. All dwarf
2. All tall
3. 50% tall and 50% dwarf
4. May be tall or dwarf

Answer: 2. All tall

biology objective question in english

Question 26. Which of the following is considered a recessive character of Mendel?

1. Round seed
2. Wrinkled seed
3. Axial flower
4. Green pod.

Answer: 2. Wrinkled seed

Question 27. Which of the following characters chosen by Mendel are recessive?

1. Green pod colour dwarf plant
2. Tall plant and axial flowers
3. Yellow pod colour and wrinkled seeds
4. Dwarf plant and round seeds.

Answer: 3. Yellow pod colour and wrinkled seeds

Difference Between Dominance And Co-Dominance Class 12

Question 28. Which is the functional unit of inheritance?

1. Gene
2. Cistron
3. Intron
4. Chromosome

Answer: 1. Gene

Question 29. Heterosis requires :

1. Crossing
2. Selection
3. Transformation
4. Mutations

Answer: 1. Crossing

Question 30. The phenotypic ratio obtained in quantitative inheritance of a dihybrid cross is :

1. 1: 2: 1
2. 1: 4 : 6: 4: 1
3. 1 :6: 15:20: 15:6: 1
4. 9:3:3: 1.

Answer: 2. 1: 4 : 6: 4: 1

Question 31. Mating between two individuals differing in genotype to produce genetic variation is called :

1. Mutation
2. Introduction
3. Hybridization
4. Domestication.

Answer: 3. Hybridization

Question 32. Grain colour in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygenes. Following is the cross AABBCC (dark colour) and aabbcc (light colour), in the F₂ generation what proportion of the progeny is likely to resemble either parent?

1. None
2. Half
3. One third
4. Less than 5 per cent.

Answer: 4. less than 5 per cent.

Question 33. The primary source of allelic variation is :

1. Mutation
2. Polyploidy
3. Recombination
4. Independent assortment

Answer: 3. Recombination

Chromosomal Mutations And Genetic Variation Class 12 HBSE

Question 34. To find out the different types of gametes produced by a pea plant having the genotype AaBb, it should be crossed to a plant with the genotype :

1. aaBB
2. AaBb
3. AABB
4. Aabb

Answer: 4. Aabb

Question 35. At a particular locus frequency of the ‘A’ allele is 0.6 that of the ‘A’ allele is 0.6 and that of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium? 

1. 0.16
2. 0.48
3. 0.36
4. 0.24.

Answer: 2. 0.48

Question 36. Test cross involves :

1. Crossing the F₁ hybrid with a double recessive genotype
2. Crossing between two genotypes with the dominant trait
3. Crossing between two genotypes with a recessive trait
4. Crossing between two F₁ hybrids.

Answer: 1. Crossing the F₁ hybrid with a double recessive genotype

Question 37. In Mendel’s experiments with the garden pea, round seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled seeds (rr), and yellow cotyledon (YY) was dominant over green cotyledon (yy). What are the expected phenotypes in the F₂ generation of the cross RRYY × rryy

1. Only wrinkled seeds with green cotyledons
2. Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
3. Only wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons
4. Only round seeds with green cotyledons.

Answer: 2. Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, and wrinkled seeds with yellow cotyledons

Question 38. How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC?

1. Nine
2. Two
3. Six
4. Three.

Answer: 2. Two

Question 39. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by :

1. Harvesting seeds from the most productive plants
2. Inducing mutations
3. Bombarding the protoplast with DNA
4. Crossing of two inbred parental lines.

Answer: 4. Crossing of two inbred parental lines

Question 40. The phenotype of an organism is the result of:

1. Environmental changes and sexual dimorphism
2. Genotype and environment interactions
3. Mutations and linkages
4. Cytoplasmic effects and nutrition.

Answer: 2. Genotype and environment interactions

DNA Replication And Transcription Class 12 HBSE

Question 41. Which one of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?

1. Pod shape in garden pea
2. Skin colour in humans
3. Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa
4. Production of male honey bee

Answer: 2. Skin colour in humans

Question 42. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by :

1. Crossing of one F₂ progeny with a female parent
2. Studying the sexual behaviour of F₂ progenies
3. Crossing of one F₁ progeny with a male parent
4. Crossing of one F₂ progeny with a male parent.

Answer: 2. Studying the sexual behaviour of F₂ progenies

Question 43. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of a maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show :

1. Segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3: 1 ratio.
2. Segregation in 3: 1 ratio.
3. A higher number of the parental types.
4. Highernumberoftherecombinant types.

Answer: 2. Segregation in 3: 1 ratio

Question 44. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of:

1. Point mutation
2. Polygenic inheritance
3. Codominance
4. Chromosomal aberration.

Answer: 2. Polygenic inheritance

Question 45. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow-seeded plant is crossed with a green-seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green-seeded plants would you expect in Ff generation?

1. 9: 1
2. 1 : 3
3. 3: 1
4. 50:50

Answer: 4. 50:50

Question 46. A human male produces sperms with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB, and ab about two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?

1. AaBB
2. AABb
3. AABB
4. AaBb

Answer: 4. AaBb

Question 47. When a cross is conducted between a black-feathered hen and a white-feathered cock, blue-feathered fowls are formed. When these fowls are allowed for interbreeding, in F, generation, there are 20 blue fowls. What would be the number of black and white fowls?

1. Black 10, white 10
2. Black 10, white 20
3. Black 20, white 10
4. Black 20, white 20

Answer: 1. Black 10, white 10

Question 48. Grain colour in wheat is determined by three pairs of polygenes. Following the cross AABBCC (dark colour) x aabbcc light colour), in the F₂ generation what proportion of the progeny is likely to resemble either parent?

1. Half
2. Less than 5%
3. One third
4. None of the above

Answer: 3. One third

Question 49. Match the genetic phenomena with the respective ratios

1. 1=E,2=D,3=C,4=B,5=A
2. 1=A,2=B,3=D,4=C,5=E
3. 1=D,2=E,3=A,4=,5=C
4. 1=E,2=D,3=A,4=B,5=C,

Answer: 3. 1=D,2=E,3=A,4=,5=C

Question 50. A pedigree analysis represents

1. Unrelated mating
2. Consanguinous mating
3. Affected parents
4. Siblings
5. Non-identical twins.

Answer: 2. Consanguinous mating

Question 51. Indicate, the inheritance of which of the following is controlled by multiple alleles:

1. Colour blindness
2. Sickle cell anaemia
3. Blood group
4. Phenylketonuria

Answer: 3. Blood group

Question 52. Which of the following is related to haemophilia?

1. A recessive gene responsible for present in the X chromosome
2. A dominant gene responsible for present in the autosomal chromosome
3. A responsible dominant gene present in the Y chromosome
4. A responsible dominant gene presents the autosomal chromosome

Answer: 1. A recessive gene responsible for present in the X chromosome

Question 53. F₂ generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic ratios are the same as 1 : 2: 1. It represents a case of:

1. Dihybrid cross
2. Monohybrid cross with complete dominance
3. Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
4. Co-dominance

Answer: 3. Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance

Question 54. A normal-visioned man whose father was colour-blind marries a woman whose father was also colour-blind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colour-blind?

1. Zero per cent
2. 25%
3. 50%
4. 100%.

Answer: 1. zero per cent

Examples Of Polygenic Inheritance Class 12 Biology

Question 55. A man having the genotype EEFfGgHH can produce P number of genetically different sperms and a woman of genotype liU.MmNn can generate (J number of genetically different eggs. Determine the values of P and Q.

1. P = 4, Q = 4
2. P = 4. Q = 8
3. P = 8. Q = 4
4. P = 8. Q = 8.

Answer: 2. P = 4. Q = 8

Question 56. In an organism, a tall phenotype is dominant over a recessive dwarf phenotype, and the alleles are designated as T and t, respectively. Upon crossing two different individuals, a total of 250 offspring were obtained, out of which 124 displayed tall phenotype and the rest were dwarf. Thus, the genotype of the parents was

1. TTxTT
2. TT x tt
3. Tt x Tt
4. Tt x ti.

Answer: 4. Tt x ti

Question 57. When yellow round heterozygous pea plants are self-fertilized, the frequency of occurrence of the RrYY genotype among the offspring is

1. 9/16
2. 3/16
3. 2/16
4. 1/16

Answer: 3. 2/16

Question 58. ABO blood groups are determined by three different alleles. How many genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

Answer: 2

Question 59. If two persons with ‘An AB’ blood group marry and have a sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group: ‘AB’ blood group: ‘B’ blood group in a 1:2:1 ratio. The modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals the presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an example of:

1. Incomplete dominance
2. Partial dominance
3. Complete dominance
4. Codominance

Answer: 4. Codominance

Question 60. The incorrect statement about Haemophilia is :

1. It is a recessive disease
2. It is a dominant disease
3. A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected
4. It is a sex-linked disease

Answer: 2. It is a dominant disease

Question 1. Which animals dominated in the Palaeozoic era?

1. Fish
2. Birds
3. Reptiles
4. Mammals.

Answer: 1. Fish

Question 2. Which is supposed to be the largest known fossils of reptiles?

1. Stegosaurus
2. Diplodocus
3. Gigantosaurus
4. Igamanodon.

Answer: 4. Igamanodon.

Question 3. Analogous organs have a:

1. Common embryonic origin but performs different functions
2. Different embryonic origins and perform different functions
3. Different embryonic origins but perform similar functions
4. Common embryonic origin and perform similar functions.

Answer: 3. Different embryonic origin but perform similar functions

evolution mcq

Question 4. Birds evolved from:

1. Reptiles
2. Amphibians
3. Fishes
4. Tetrapods.

Answer: 1. Reptiles

Question 5. Possession of venoms in animals is an attribute to:

1. Fossorial adaptation
2. Desert adaptation
3. Arboreal adaptation
4. Aquatic adaptation.

Answer: 2. Desert adaptation

Evidence Of Evolution Class 12 HBSE Notes

Question 6. First mammals occurred in which era period?

1. Permian-Palaeozoic
2. Triassic-Mesozoic
3. Tertiary-Cenozoic
4. None of these.

Answer: 2. Triassic-Mesozoic

Question 7. The appearance of ancestral characters in the newborns, such as the tail, multiple mammae etc. is known as:

1. Homologous
2. Analogous
3. Atavism
4. Vestigial.

Answer: 3. Atavism

Question 8. The correct sequence is:

1. Palaeozoic —Mesozoic—Cenozoic
2. Mesozoic—Archaeozoic—Proterozoic
3. Palaeozoic—Archaeozoic—Coenozoic
4. Archaeozoic—Palaeozoic—Coenozoic.

Answer: 1. Palaeozoic —Mesozoic—Cenozoic

Question 9. A bird with teeth is:

1. Kiwi
2. Ostrich/King Vulture
3. Dodo
4. Archaeopteryx.

Answer: 4. Archaeopteryx.

Fossil Evidence Of Evolution Examples Class 12 Biology

Question 10. The recapitulation of protozoan ancestry is seen in:

1. Poriferan zygote
2. Colonies of hydrozoa
3. Zygote of metazoans
4. Anthozoa.

Answer: 3. Zygote of metazoans

Question 11. The term used for similarity in organ structure seen in great diversity is:

1. Homology
2. Analogy
3. Symmetrical
4. Identical.

Answer: 1. Homology

evolution class 12 mcq

Question 12. Homologous organs are those that show similarities in

1. Origin
2. Size
3. Appearance
4. Function.

Answer: 1. Origin

Question 13. Which of the following is a connecting link?

1. Limulus
2. Peripatus
3. Periplaneta
4. Pila.

Answer: 2. Peripatus

Comparative Anatomy As Evidence Of Evolution Class 12

Question 14. Which set includes all vestigial structures of man?

1. Vermiform appendix, body hair and cochlea
2. Coccyx, appendix, ear muscles
3. Coccyx, wisdom tooth, patella
4. Ear muscles, atlas, body hair.

Answer: 2. Coccyx, appendix, ear muscles

Question 15. Mesozoic era is the era of:

1. Fishes
2. Reptiles
3. Birds
4. Mammals.

Answer: 2. Reptiles

Question 16. The most evident source of evolution is:

1. Fossils
2. Embryos
3. Morphology
4. Vestigial organs.

Answer: 1. Fossils

Question 17. A scene from the Jurassic period: Dinosaurs roaming in carboniferous forests, eating plants, killing each other and being eaten by lions and tigers. What is the catch?

1. There were no carboniferous forests when dinosaurs were there
2. All dinosaurs were carnivorous
3. Lions and tigers had not evolved by that time
4. Dinosaurs did not fight among themselves.

Answer: 3. Lions and tigers had not evolved by that time

Question 18. Free caudal vertebrae occurred in fossil Archaeopteryx. The trait is:

1. Reptilian
2. Avian
3. Neither 1 nor 2
4. Mammalian.

Answer: 1. Reptilian

questions about evolution

Question 19. Gondwana Land comprised:

1. India and Australia
2. India. Australia and New Zealand
3. India, Australia, New Zealand and South Africa.
4. India, Australia, New Zealand, South Africa and South America.

Answer: 4. India, Australia, New Zealand, South Africa and South America.

Question 20. The origin of different finches on the Galapagos islands is an example of:

1. Convergent evolution
2. Divergent evolution
3. Adaptive radiation
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 4. Both 2 and 3.

Embryological Evidence Of Evolution Class 12 HBSE

Question 21. Related species of Alligators and Magnolias occur in:

1. Both sides of the isthmus of Panama
2. China and Japan
3. China and eastern U.S.A,
4. Parts of Russia and Canada.

Answer: 3. China and eastern U.S.A,

Question 22. Neoceratodus is a connecting link between

1. Cyclostomes and fishes
2. Fishes and amphibians
3. Amphibians and reptiles
4. None of the above.

Answer: 2. Fishes and amphibians

Question 23. Which of the following are connecting links?

1. Lung fishes
2. Prototherians
3. Peripatus
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. All of the above.

Question 24. Tachyglossus is a connecting link between:

1. Reptiles and birds
2. Reptiles and mammals
3. Birds and mammals
4. All the above.

Answer: 2. Reptiles and mammals

Question 25. Why do we dig fossils and study them?

1. To find new fossils that have not yet been recorded
2. Fossil finding gives occupation to scientists
3. Fossil fills the gaps in the evolutionary records of animals
4. Fossils throw light on the evolution of animals of the past.

Answer: 4. Fossils throw light on the evolution of animals of the past.

Molecular Evidence Supporting Evolution Class 12 Biology

Question 26. Which one of the following is used for dating archaeological specimens in wood, bones and shells?

1. Uranium – 238
2. Argon Isotope
3. Carbon – 14
4. Strontium – 90.

Answer: 3. Carbon – 14

Question 27. Physiological evidence in favour of evolution is demonstrated by:

1. Similarity in body structures
2. Closely related forms being placed in the same group of animals
3. Identity in the functioning of hormones and chemical- physiological nature of blood
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Identity in the functioning of hormones and chemical- physiological nature of blood

Question 28. Being all mammals,, dolphins, bats, monkeys and horses have some important common characteristics but they also show the conspicuous differences. This is due to the phenomenon of:

1. Genetic drift
2. Convergence
3. Divergence
4. Normalization.

Answer: 3. Divergence

Question 29. The Lederberg Replica-Plating experiment has proved in evolution, the role of:

1. Natural selection
2. Artificial selection
3. Adaptation in evolution
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Biogeographical Evidence For Evolution Class 12 HBSE

Question 30. Pliohippus arose in:

1. Holocene
2. Pliocene
3. Oligocene
4. Miocene.

Answer: 2. Pliocene

Question 31. Amphibia first appeared in:

1. Permian
2. Carboniferous
3. Devonian
4. Silurian.

Answer: 3. Devonian

Question 32. The Permian period during which the first most modern orders of insects appeared, occurred approximately:

1. 80 million years ago
2. 150 million years ago
3. 280 million years ago
4. 550 million years ago.

Answer: 3. 280 million years ago

Question 33. Dinosaurs were abundant in:

1. Jurassic period
2. Devonian period
3. Permian period
4. Pleistocene period.

Answer: 1. Jurassic period

Question 34. Which of the following statements is wrong?

1. Continuous variations appear suddenly or accidentally
2. Continuous variations are very common and they are caused due to environmental changes
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 35. Some insects, such as cockroaches have biting and chewing mouth parts, housefly has sponging type of mouth parts, whereas a mosquito has piercing and sucking mouth parts. These various types of mouth parts are examples of:

1. Analogous organs
2. Homologous organs
3. Similar organs
4. Dissimilar organs.

Answer: 2. Homologous organs

evolution means fill in the blanks

Question 36. According to the geologic time-table, man belongs to:

1. The Pleistocene epoch of the quaternary period of Coenozoic era
2. Cretaceous period of Mesozoic era
3. Permian period of Palaeozoic era
4. Oligocene epoch of tertiary period of Cenozoic era.

Answer: 1. Pleistocene epoch of the quaternary period of Coenozoic era

Question 37. For how many years have the dinosaurs been extinct?

1. About 65 million years
2. About 135 m. years
3. About 230 m. years
4. About 280 m. years.

Answer: 1. About 65 million years

Types Of Evidence Of Evolution Class 12 Biology

Question 38. When did the first forest appear?

1. In the Cambrian period of Palaeozoic era
2. In Devonian period of Palaeozoic era
3. In Jurassic period of Mesozoic era
4. In the tertiary period of the Coenozoic era.

Answer: 2. In Devonian period of Palaeozoic era

Question 39. The word ‘Dinosaur’ was invented by

1. G. Gaylord Simpson
2. Sir Richard Owen
3. J.L.B. Smith
4. Empedocles.

Answer: 2. Sir Richard Owen

Question 40. Which one of the following fossils represents a connecting, link between the evolution of mammals from reptiles?

1. Archaeopteryx
2. Sphenodon
3. Mammoth
4. Dimetrodon.

Answer: 4. Dimetroden.

Question 41. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany is located at:

1. Lucknow
2. Kolkatta
3. Pune
4. Bangalore.

Answer: 1. Lucknow

Question 42. Monera evolved during:

1. Azoic
2. Archaeozoic
3. Proterozoic
4. Precambrian.

Answer: 2. Archaeozoic

Question 43. Age of trilobites is:

1. Precambrian
2. Devonian
3. Cambrian
4. Permian.

Answer: 3. Cambrian

Artificial Selection As Evidence Of Evolution Class 12

Question 44. The epoch in which the first man-like creatures evolved was:

1. Holocene
2. Pliocene
3. Pleistocene
4. Miocene.

Answer: 2. Pliocene

Question 45. What are the fossil contents of alimentary canals known as?

1. Trails
2. Casts
3. Coprolite
4. Impressions.

Answer: 3. Coprolite

Question 46. During fossilisation soft parts decompose and harder parts are impregnated with minerals and turn into stony shapes and are called:

1. Moulds
2. Casts
3. Petrified
4. Coprolites.

Answer: 3. Petrified

Question 47. The origin of the first mammals occurred:

1. 220 million years ago
2. 600 million years ago
3. 240 million years ago
4. Over 1600 million years ago.

Answer: 3. 240 million years ago

Question 48. The term orthogenesis means:

1. Indirect evolution
2. Evolution in a straight line
3. Species differentiation
4. Change in germplasm.

Answer: 2. Evolution in a straight line

Question 49. The term orthogenesis was proposed by:

1. Haeckel
2. Cuvier
3. Darwin
4. Julian Huxley.

Answer: 1. Haeckel

Question 50. The oldest fossils of land animals consist of:

1. Amphibians
2. Centipedes
3. Primitive spider
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 1. Amphibians

Question 51. Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf, marsupial exhibit:

1. Adaptive radiation
2. Convengent evolution
3. Divergent evolution
4. Homology

Answer: 2. Convengent evolution

Question 52. The age of mammals and birds is known as:

1. Palaeozoic
2. Cenozoic
3. Mesozoic
4. Proterozoic.

Answer: 2. Coenozoic

Question 53. Which of the following were the dominant animals of Palaeozoic era?

1. Birds
2. Egg laying mammals
3. Reptiles
4. Cartilage and bony fishes.

Answer: 4. Cartilage and bony fishes

Question 54. The founder of modem palaeontology is:

1. Birbal Sahni
2. Steward
3. Cuvier
4. Leonard de Vinci.

Answer: 3. Cuvier

Question 55. Remains of woolly Mammoth found in the permafrost of Siberia are:

1. 5000 years old
2. 25000 years old
3. 500,000 years old
4. 2.5 million years old.

Answer: 2. 25000 years old

Question 56. Pompeii city was buried in lava of Mount Vesuvius during:

1. 635 B. C.
2. 79 A. D.
3. 635 A. D.
4. 1379 A. D.

Answer: 2. 79 A. D.

Question 57. Compressions are a type of fossils having:

1. All internal details
2. Organic material is replaced by mineral matter
3. Compressed remains of dead organisms
4. Thin carbon film showing external features.

Answer: 4. Thin carbon film showing external features.

Question 58. Fossils of Archaeopteryx were found from:

1. Jurassic rocks
2. Triassic rocks
3. Cretaceous rocks
4. Cenozoic rocks.

Answer: 1. Jurassic rocks

Question 59. Birds are glorified reptiles has been proved by the discovery of fossils which resembles birds and reptiles:

1. Struthio
2. Archaeopteryx
3. Apteryx
4. Ornithorhynchus.

Answer: 2. Archaeopteryx

Vestigial Organs As Proof Of Evolution Class 12 HBSE

Question 60. What is the appearance of ancestral characters in an individual called?

1. Atavism
2. Analogy
3. Homology
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Atavism

Question 61. Proteus engines is characterised by vestigial:

1. Limbs
2. Eyes
3. Wings
4. Vermiform appendix.

Answer: 2. Eyes

Question 62. The flightless bird of Australia is:

1. Kiwi and Rhea
2. Rhea and Emu
3. Emu and Cassowary
4. Emu and Kiwi.

Answer: 3. Emu and Cassowary

Question 63. An incompletely three-chambered heart occurs in:

1. Protopterus
2. Chiamera
3. Salamander
4. Dogfish.

Answer: 1. Protopterus

Question 64. Sacculina shows:

1. Retrogressive metamorphosis
2. A number of vestigial organs
3. Progressive metamorphosis
4. Protochordate traits.

Answer: 1. Retrogressive metamorphosis

Question 65. Who proposed for the first time that a developing animal embryo passes through stages resembling adults of its ancestors:

1. Von Baer
2. Meckel
3. Haeckel
4. Darwin.

Answer: 2. Meckel

Question 66. Replacement of original hard parts or even the soft tissues of the organisms by minerals is known as:

1. Compression
2. Petrification
3. Moulds
4. Amber.

Answer: 2. Petrification

Question 67. Stings develop from:

1. The last abdominal segment in Honey Bee and Scorpion.
2. Ovipositor in Honey Bee and scorpion
3. Ovipositor in Honey Bee and last abdominal segment in Scorpion.
4. The last abdominal segment in Honey Bee and ovipositor in Scorpion.

Answer: 3. Ovipositor in Honey Bee and last abdominal segment in Scorpion

Question 68. Cycas and Ginkgo are connecting links between:

1. Bryophytes and pteridophytes
2. Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
3. Gymnosperms and angiosperms
4. Thallophyta and bryophyta.

Answer: 2. Pteridophytes and gymnosperms

Question 69. Which one of the following animals has been extinct recently?

1. Dodo
2. Dinosaur
3. Pterodactyl
4. Mammoth.

Answer: 1. Dodo

Examples Of Homologous And Analogous Organs Class 12

Question 70. Analogous organs with similar external morphology are called:

1. Heteroplastic
2. Homoplastic
3. Heteromorphic
4. Both 2 and 3

Answer: 2. Homplastic

Question 71. Possession of accessory respiratory organ in Anabas is an example of:

1. Ecological adaptations
2. Physiological adaptations
3. Parasitic adaptations
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Ecological adaptations

Question 72. How did dinosaurs become extinct? There are many hypotheses. One mostly accepted is:

1. Due to sudden changes in the environment
2. Due to global warming
3. Due to the impact of meteorites
4. Due to their predation by lions and tigers.

Answer: 3. Due to the impact of meteorites

Question 73. Find the odd man out:

1. Seal’s flipper
2. Bat’s wing
3. Horse’s foot
4. Butterfly’s wings.

Answer: 4. Butterfly’s wings.

Question 74. The biggest and heaviest dinosaur was:

1. Brachiosaurus
2. Tyrannosaurus
3. Allosaurus
4. Stegosaurus.

Answer: 1. Brachiosaurus

Question 75. The first fossil bird found in the rocks of the Jurassic period belongs to genera:

1. Archaeopteryx
2. Archaeomis
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Both (1) and (2)

Question 76. In Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany in Lucknow, 3.2 billion-year-old rocks are kept which have fossils of:

1. Algae
2. Euglena
3. Virus
4. Cyanobacteria.

Answer: 4. Cyanobacteria.

Question 77. The flowering plants originated in:

1. Cretaceous
2. Tertiary period
3. Triassic
4. Carboniferous.

Answer: 3. Triassic

Question 78. The study of the fossil plants is known as:

1. Palaeontology
2. Palaeobotany
3. Palynology
4. Palaeoanatomy.

Answer: 2. Palaeobotany

Question 79. Point out the correct statement regarding the evolution of the horse.

1. The premolars and molars increased in length while their roots became short
2. The brain became smaller
3. Ankles became low
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. The premolars and molars increased in length while their roots became short

Question 80. What is the recent example of the mass extinction of organisms?

1. Cycadofilicales
2. Dinosaurs
3. Tree ferns
4. Neanderthal man.

Answer: 4. Neanderthal man.

Question 81. Plants which are naturally fast disappearing from the scene are:

1. Cycads and Ginkgos
2. Tulips and Magnolias
3. Bombaxi and Bamboos
4. Rhododendrons and Rhizophores.

Answer: 1. Cycads and Ginkgos

Question 82. Find the odd man out:

1. The trunk of an elephant and the hand of a chimpanzee
2. Ginger and potato
3. Wings of bat and bird
4. Nails of human beings and claws of a cat.

Answer: 1. Trunk of an elephant and the hand of a chimpanzee

Question 83. Which of the following rules states that organisms have a tendency towards increase in size during their evolution?

1. Williston’s rule
2. Cope’s rule
3. Dollo’s rule
4. Hardy-Weinberg’s rule.

Answer: 2. Cope’s rule

Question 84. Different groups of plants (and also animals) have similar proteins. What is the type of evidence?

1. Physiological
2. Cytological
3. Genetical
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Physiological

Question 85. Match the following lists and give the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

1. 2 → 1→4→3
2. 1→2→3→4
3. 4→3→2→1
4. 3→2→4→1

Answer: 1. 2 →1 →4 →3

Question 86. Match the following lists and give the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

1. 1→2→3→4
2. 1→3→2→4
3. 4→3→2→1
4. 3→2→1→4

Answer: 2. 1→3→2→4

Question 87. An evolutionary trend in which there is a general degeneration and loss of organs is:

1. Retrogressive
2. Progressive
3. Vestigial
4. Stasignesis

Answer: 1. Retrogressive

Question 88. As per geological time scale, hominids evolved during:

1. Miocene
2. Oligocene
3. Pliocene
4. Pleistocene.

Answer: 3. Pliocene

Question 89. From which of the following did the modern horse called Equus arise in the early Cenozoic era?

1. Pliohippus
2. Merychippus
3. Orohippus
4. Eohippus.

Answer: 4. Eohippus.

Question 90. Analogous organs with similar external morphology are called:

1. Homoplastic
2. Heteroplastic
3. Heteromorphic
4. Both 2 and 3.

Answer: 1. Homoplastic

Question 91. Stings develop from:

1. Last abdominal segment in honey bee and scorpion
2. Ovipositor in honey bees and scorpions
3. Last abdominal segment in honey bee and ovipositor in scorpion
4. Ovipositor in honey bee and last abdominal segment in scorpion.

Answer: 4. Ovipositor in honey bee and last abdominal segment in scorpion.

Question 92. In human beings, canine teeth are:

1. Useless
2. Required for tearing food parts
3. Chewing teeth
4. Used for nibbling food articles.

Answer: 2. Required for tearing food parts

Theory Of Evolution By Natural Selection

Question 1. The pioneers in the field of ‘Organic evolution’ are:

1. Darwin, Hugo de Vries, Lamarck, Huxley
2. Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries, Malthus, Darwin
3. Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, Malthus, De Vries
4. Darwin, Lamarck, Karl Landsteiner, De Vries.

Answer: 2. Karl Landsteiner, Hugo de Vries, Malthus, Darwin

Question 2. Fore-coming generations are less adaptive than these parental generations due to:

1. Natural selection
2. Mutation
3. Genetic drift
4. Adaptation

Answer: 2. Mutation

Question 3. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis shows similarity with the theory of inheritance of acquired characters, then what shall be correct according to it?

1. Useful organs become strong and developed while useless organs become extinct, these organs help in the struggle for survival
2. The size of organs increases with ageing
3. The development of organs is due to willpower
4. There should be some physical basis for inheritance.

Answer: 4. There should be some physical basis for inheritance.

evolution questions

Question 4. The frequency of an allele in an isolated population may change due to:

1. Genetic drift
2. Gene flow
3. Mutation
4. Natural selection.

Answer: 1. Genetic drift

Question 5. In Lederberg’s replica plating experiment what shall be first used to obtain streptomycin-resistant bacteria strain?

1. Minimal medium and streptomycin
2. Complete medium and streptomycin
3. Only minimal medium
4. Only a complete medium.

Answer: 2. Complete medium and streptomycin

Theory Of Evolution By Natural Selection Class 12 HBSE

Question 6. Industrial melanism is an example of:

1. Defensive adaptation of skin against UV radiation
2. Drug resistance
3. Darkening of skin due to smoke from industries
4. Protective resemblance with the surroundings.

Answer: 4. Protective resemblance with the surroundings.

Question 7. Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structure?

1. Organs appear only in the embryonic stage and disappear later in adulthood.
2. Organs with anatomical similarities but performing different functions
3. Organs with anatomical dissimilarities but performing the same function
4. Organs that have no function now but have an important function in the ancestor.

Answer: 4. Organs that have no function now but have an important function in the ancestor.

Question 8. Darwin in his “Natural Selection Theory” did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic evolution?

1. Discontinuous variations
2. Parasites and predators as natural enemies
3. Survival of fittest
4. Struggle for existence.

Answer: 1. Discontinuous variations

Question 9. Unit of Natural selection is:

1. Individual
2. Family
3. Species
4. Population.

Answer: 1. Individual

Darwin’S Theory Of Natural Selection Explained

Question 10. Mule is a product of:

1. Breeding
2. Mutation
3. Intraspecific hybridisation
4. Interspecific hybridisation.

Answer: 4. Interspecific hybridisation.

questions about evolution

Question 11. The natural selection really means:

1. Struggle for existence
2. Differential reproduction
3. Survival of the fittest
4. Elimination of the unfit.

Answer: 3. Survival of the fittest

Question 12. According to the modern synthetic theory of evolution, organic evolution depends upon:

1. Mutation and Natural selection
2. Genetic recombination and Natural selection
3. Mutation, reproductive isolation and Natural selection
4. All of the above factors.

Answer: 4. All of the above factors.

Question 13. The most likely reason for the development of resistance against pesticides in insects damaging a crop is:

1. Directed mutation
2. Acquired heritable changes
3. Random mutations
4. Genetic recombination.

Answer: 3. Random mutations

Industrial Melanism Example In Evolution Class 12 HBSE

Question 14. Geographic and reproductive isolation brings about:

1. Over-production
2. Extinction
3. Speciation
4. Competition.

Answer: 3. Speciation

Question 15. The term species was coined by:

1. Linnaeus
2. John Ray
3. Aristotle
4. Engler.

Answer: 4. Engler.

Question 16. Which of the following is called the Swell-Wright effect?

1. Gene pool
2. Gene flow
3. Genetic drift
4. Isolation.

Answer: 3. Genetic drift

Question 17. de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on:

1. Althea rosea
2. Drosophila melanogaster
3. Oenothera lamarckiana
4. Pisum sativum.

Answer: 3. Oenothera lamarckiana

Question 18. One of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution. It is:

1. Development of transgenic animals
2. Production of ‘dolly’ the sheep by cloning
3. Prevalence of pesticide-resistant insects
4. Development of organs from ‘stem cells’ for organ transplantation

Answer: 3. Prevalence of pesticide-resistant insects

Evidences Of Natural Selection Class 12 Biology

Question 19. The phenomenon of industrial melanism demonstrates:

1. Natural selection
2. Induced mutation
3. Geographical isolation
4. Reproductive isolation.

Answer: 1. Natural selection

evolution notes class 12

Question 20. Which of the following evidence does not favour the Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired characters?

1. Absence of limbs in snakes
2. Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
3. Lack of pigment in cave-dwelling animals
4. Melanization in peppered moth in industrial areas.

Answer: 4. Melanization in peppered moths in industrial areas.

Question 21. Survival of the fittest was given by:

1. Darwin
2. Lamarck
3. Weismann
4. Herbert Spencer.

Answer: 4. Herbert Spencer.

Question 22. Using imprints from a plate with a complete medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you can select streptomycin-resistant mutants and prove that such mutations do not originate as adaptation. These imprints need to be used:

1. Only on plates with streptomycin
2. On plates with minimal medium
3. Only on plates without streptomycin
4. On plates with and without streptomycin.

Answer: 1. Only on plates with streptomycin

Question 23. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is known to be affected by gene flow genetic drift, mutation, genetic remobination and:

1. Evolution
2. Limiting factors
3. Natural selection
4. Saltation
5. Overproduction.

Answer: 3. Saltation

Survival Of The Fittest Theory Class 12 HBSE

Question 24. At a particular locus, the frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.6 and that of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?

1. 0.16
2. 0.48
3. 0.36
4. 0.24.

Answer: 2. 0.48

Question 25. In a random mating population in equilibrium, which of the following brings about a change in gene frequency in a non-directional manner?

1. Mutations
2. Random drift
3. Selection
4. Migration.

Answer: 2. Random drift

Question 26. The biogenetic law of Haeckel is:

1. Omnis vivum e vivum
2. Omnis cellula e cellula
3. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
4. Phylogeny repeats ontogeny.

Answer: 3. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny

Question 27. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Genetic variability provides raw material for the operation of natural selection and reproductive isolation
2. Genetic variability is produced by somatic mutation
3. Somatic mutations are inherited
4. None of the above.

Answer: 1. Genetic variability provides the raw material for the operation of natural selection and reproductive isolation

Question 28. The objections to Darwin’s theory of natural selection is/are:

1. No differentiation between somatic and germinal variation
2. It fails to explain the role of discontinuous variation
3. It fails to explain the possible reason behind over-speciation
4. All of the above.

Answer: 4. It fails to explain the possible reason behind over-speciation

Darwin’S Finches And Adaptive Radiation Class 12 HBSE

Question 29. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as:

1. Phylogeny
2. Ancestry
3. Paleontology
4. Ontogeny.

Answer: 1. Phylogeny

evolution short notes class 12

Question 30. Which of the following disproved experimentally the concept of inheritance of acquired characters?

1. Lamarck
2. Weismann
3. Darwin
4. Oparin.

Answer: 2. Weismann

Question 31. The Hardy-Weinberg law of equilibrium was based on the following:

1. Random mating, selection, gene flow
2. Random mating, genetic drift, mutation
3. Non-random mating, mutation, gene flow
4. Random mating, no mutation, no gene flow and no genetic drift.

Answer: 4. Random mating, no mutation, no gene flow and no genetic drift.

Question 32. Peppered moth (Biston betularia) is an example of:

1. Transient Polymorphism And Disruptive Selection
2. Transient Polymorphism And Directional Selection
3. Balanced Polymorphism And Disruptive Selection
4. Balanced Polymorphism And Directional Selection

Answer: 2. Transient Polymorphism And Directional Selection

Question 33. Darwin’s finches are a good example of:

1. Convergent evolution
2. Adaptive radiation
3. Connecting link
4. Industrial melanism.

Answer: 1. Convergent evolution

Question 34. Micro-evolution can be best defined as the evolution:

1. Below species level
2. Below genus level
3. Above genus level
4. Origin of family.

Answer: 2. Below genus level

Difference Between Lamarckism And Darwinism

Question 35. Modern synthetic theory of evolution is not based on:

1. Genetic mutation
2. Recombination and natural selection
3. Reproductive isolation
4. None of the above.

Answer: 4. None of the above.

Question 36. The tendency of the population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by:

1. Lack of migration
2. Lack of mutations
3. Lack of random mating
4. Random mating

Answer: 3. Lack of random mating

Question 37. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moths proves that:

1. The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over the lighter form in an industrial area
2. The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial areas or non-polluted area
3. Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
4. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation.

Answer: 4. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation.

Question 38. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in:

1. Intraspecific competition
2. Interspecific competition
3. Predation on one another
4. Mutualism.

Answer: 1. Intraspecific competition

Question 39. Adaptive radiation refers to

1. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
2. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
3. Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
4. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation.

Answer: 4. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation.

Question 40. Select the correct statement from the following:

1. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
2. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae
3. Mutations are random and directional
4. Darwinian variations are small and directionless.

Answer: 1. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature

Natural Selection Vs Artificial Selection Class 12 HBSE

Question 41. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is:

1. Preventing Speciation
2. Speciation through reproductive isolation
3. Random creation of new species
4. No change in the isolated fauna.

Answer: 2. Speciation through reproductive isolation

Question 42. Match the following:

The correct match is:

1. a = 3, b = 2, c = 5, d = 4, e = 1
2. a = 3, b = 4, c = 2, d = 5, e = 1
3. a = 3, b = 4, c = 5, d = 2, e = 1
4. a = 3. b = 5, c = 4, d = 1, e = 2.

Answer: 3. a = 3, b = 4, c = 5, d = 2, e = 1

Question 43. Match the scientists and their contributions to the field of evolution.

1. 1—D, 2—C, 3—A, 4—E, 5—B
2. 1—D, 2—C, 3—E, 4—A, 5—F
3. 1—D, 2—C, 3—E, 4—C, 5—A
4. 1—B, 2—C, 3—A, 4—E, 5—B
5. 1—C, 2—D, 3—A, 4—E, 5—B.

Answer: 1. 1—D, 2—C, 3—A, 4—E, 5—B

Natural Selection In Human Evolution Class 12 Biology

Question 44. Which one of the following scientist’s name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him:

Answer: 4

Question 45. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary histories evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge is called:

1. Convergent evolution
2. Non-random evolution
3. Adaptive radiation
4. Natural selection

Answer: 1. Convergent evolution

Question 46. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as:

1. Genetic drift
2. Random mating
3. Genetic load
4. Genetic flow

Answer: 1. Genetic drift

Genetic Variation And Natural Selection Class 12 HBSE

Question 47. According to Darwin. The organic evolution is due to:

1. Interspecific competition
2. Competition within closely related species
3. Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species
4. Intraspecific competition

Answer: 4. Intraspecific competition

Plant Anatomy Question From Competitive Examinations

Question 1. In floating leaved plants, stomata occur on:

1. Lower surface
2. Upper surface
3. Both sides
4. Absent.

Answer: 2. Upper surface

plant anatomy mcqs

Question 2. Vascular bundles occur in a ring in:

1. Monocot stem
2. Leaf
3. Root
4. Dicot stems.

Answer: 4. Dicot stem.

Question 3. A.T.S. of the stem is stained first with safranin and then fast green. What would be the colour of the phloem?

1. Red
2. Green
3. Orange
4. Purple.

Answer: 2. Green

anatomy of flowering plants

Question 4. Passage cells occur in:

1. Epidermis
2. Cortex
3. Endodermis
4. Pericycle.

Answer: 3. Endodermis

Question 5. Casparian strips occur in:

1. Longitudinal and radial walls of epidermal cells
2. Longitudinal walls of xylem
3. All walls of endodermis
4. Radial walls of endodermis.

Answer: 4. Radial walls of endodermis.

morphology of flowering plants mcq class 11

Question 6. Loading of phloem is related to:

1. Increase of sugar in phloem
2. Elongation of phloem cell
3. Separation of phloem parenchyma
4. Strengthening of phloem fibre.

Answer: 1. Increase of sugar in phloem

Question 7. Roots of which plant contain a red pigment which has an affinity for oxygen:

1. Canon
2. Soyabean
3. Mustard
4. Radish.

Answer: 2. Soyabean

HBSE Class 11 Biology Plant Anatomy

Question 8. In the monocot root, we observe:

1. Conjoint, collateral, closed, polyarch vascular bundle
2. Exodermis, end arch, and tetrarch closed bundles
3. Suberized exodermis, Casparian strip, passage cells cambium
4. Suberized exodermis, polyarch xylem, pith.

Answer: 4. Suberized exodermis, polyarch xylem, pith.

Question 9. Dead cells that serve mechanical functions are:

1. Sclerenchyma
2. Companion cells
3. Collenchyma
4. Wood parenchyma.

Answer: 1. Sclerenchyma

Question 10. Annual rings are found in plants belonging to:

1. Arabic region
2. Temperate areas
3. Tropics
4. Near sea beaches.

Answer: 2. Temperate areas

Question 11. ‘Histogen theory’ was proposed by:

1. Hanstein
2. Eamu
3. Esmam
4. Schmidt.

Answer: 1. Hanstein

Question 12. In the diagram of the T.S. of Helianthus stem given below, certain parts have been indicated by alphabets; choose the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly matched with the parts which they 

1. A = Epidermis, B = Epidermal hairs
   C = Parenchyma, D = Starch sheath
   E = Hypodermis (collenchyma),
   F = Vascular bundle
   G = Bundle cap, H = Medulla or pith
   I = Pith
2. A = Epidermis hairs, B = Epidermis
   C = Hypodermis (Collenchyma),
   D = Parenchyma
   E = Starch sheath, F = Bundle cap
   G = Vascular bundle, H = Medullary rays.
   I = Medullary rays
3. A = Epidermal hairs, B = Epidermis
   C = Hypodermis (collenchyma),
   D = Starch sheath, E = Parenchyrna,
   F = Vascular bundle, G = Bundle cap,
   H = Medulla or pith, I = Medullary rays.
4. A = Epidermal hairs, B = Epidermis
   C = Parenchyma, D = Hypodermis (Collenchyrnil)
   E = starch sheath, F = Vascular bundle
   G = Bundle cap, H = Medulla or pith
   I = Medullary rays
5. C = Hypodermis (Collenchyma),
   D = Parenchyma
   E = Starch sheath, F = Bundle cap
   G = Vascular bundle, H = Medullary rays.
   I = Medullary rays

Answer: 2. A = Epidermis hairs, B = Epidermis

Plant Anatomy Class 11 Notes

Question 13. In the diagram of the cross-section of the vascular bundle of the monocot stem given aside, different parts have been indicated by alphabets; choose the answer in which these alphabets have been correctly matched with the parts which they indicate

morphology of flowering plants class 11 mcq

1. A = Bundle sheath, B = Broken phloem,
   C = Metaphloem, D = Metaxylem,
   E = Protoxylem, F = xylem parenchyma,
   G = Lysigenous cavity
2. A = Bundle cap, B = Metaphloem,
   C = Protophloem, D = Protoxylem,
   E = Metaxylefit, F = Lysigenous cavity,
   G = Xylem parenchyma
3. A = Bundle sheath, B = Primary phloem,
   C = Secondary phloem, D = Primary xylem,
   E = secondary xylem, F = Xylem fibres,
   G = Hydathode
4. A = Bundle cap, B = Metaxylem,
   C = Metaphloem, D = Protoxylem,
   E = Protophloem, F = Lysigenous cavity,
   G = Xylem parenchyma.

Answer: 1. A = Bundle sheath, B = Broken phloem,
C = Metaphloem, D = Metaxylem,
E = Protoxylem, F = xylem parenchyma,
G = Lysigenous cavity

Question 14. Match the names of the structures listed under column-1 with the functions given under column 2. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabet of the two columns:

1. 1=B, 2=D, 3=A, 4=C
2. 1=D, 2=A, 3=C, 4=E
3. 1=E, 2=C, 3=A, 4=D
4. 1=A, 2=D, 3=t, 4=C.

Answer: 2. 1=D, 2=A, 3=C, 4=E

Anatomy of Flowering Plants Class 11

Question 15. Match the types of vascular bundles listed under Column 1 with examples given under Column 2; choose the answer which gives the correct combination of the alphabets of the two columns:

1. 1=D, 2=C, 3=B, 4=A
2. 1=D, 2=C, 3=A, 4=B
3. 1=t, 2=D, 3=C, 4=A
4. 1=D, 2=A, 3=C, 4=B

Answer: 1. 1=D, 2=C, 3=B, 4=A

Question 16. Terminal and axillary buds arise from:

1. Apical meristem
2. Parenchyma
3. Lateral meristem
4. Intercalary meristem.

Answer: 1. Apical meristem

Question 17. Intercalary meristem is located in:

1. Latex
2. Root
3. Stem tip
4. Petiole and internode.

Answer: 4. Petiole and internode.

Question 18. Which of the following is not a component:

1. Vascular rays
2. Medullary rays.
3. Vessels
4. Tracheids.

Answer: 2. Medullary rays.

Question 19. The primary cell wall is elastic due to the absence of:

1. Suberin
2. Culin
3. Pectin
4. Lignin.

Answer: 4. Lignin.

Types of Plant Tissues Class 11

Question 20. Vessels are found in:

1. All angiosperms
2. Most angiosperms, a few gymnosperms and pteridophytes.
3. All angiosperms and a few gymnosperms
4. Most angiosperms and a few gymnosperms.

Answer: 2. Most angiosperms, a few gymnosperms and pteridophytes.

Question 21. Four radial vascular bundles are formed in:

1. Monocot root
2. Dicot stem
3. Dicot root
4. Monocot stem.

Answer: 3. Dicot root

Question 22. Annual rings are formed basically due to:

1. Marked variations in seasons
2. Different kinds of development of phloem and xylem
3. Uniform climate conditions
4. Different kinds of phloem.

Answer: 1. Marked variations in seasons

Question 23. The commercial use fibres are obtained from:

1. Interxylary fibres
2. Xylem fibres
3. Phloem fibres
4. None of these.

Answer: 3. Phloem fibres

Question 24. Which one of the following tissues does not possess living protoplasm?

1. Collenchyma
2. Sclerenchyma
3. Tracheids
4. Parenchyma.

Answer: 2. Sclerenchyma

Question 25. The chief function of the sieve tube element is:

1. To translocate the organic materials from source to sink
2. To conduct minerals
3. To conduct water from roots to leaves
4. To help the plants in forming wood.

Answer: 1. To translocate the organic materials from source to sink

Question 26. Cambium activity is highest in:

1. Spring
2. Winter
3. Autumn
4. Rains.

Answer: 1. Spring

Difference Between Plant Anatomy and Morphology

Question 27. In the leaf, vascular bundles are found in

1. Veins
2. Palisade tissue
3. Upper epidermis
4. Lower epidermis
5. Spongy mesophyll.

Answer: 1. Veins

Question 28. The quiescent centre in the root meristem series is a

1. Site for storage of food which is utilized during maturation
2. Reservoir of growth hormones
3. Reserve for replenishment of damaged calls of the meristem
4. Region for absorption of water.

Answer: 3. Reserve for replenishment of damaged calls of the meristem

Question 29. In a dicotyledonous stem, the sequence of tissues from the outside to the inside is:

1. Phellem – Pericycle – Endodermis – phloem
2. Phellem – Phloem – Endodermis – Pericycle
3. Phellem – Endodermis – Pericycle – Phloem
4. Pericycle – Phellem – Endodermis – Phloem.

Answer: 3. Phellem – Endodermis – Pericycle – Phloem

Question 30. Jute fibres deteriorate because they have:

1. High cellulose
2. Low cellulose
3. High lignin
4. Low lignin.

Answer: 3. High lignin

Question 31. Wood is:

• Primary xylem
• Secondary xylem
• Primary phloem
• Secondary phloem.

Answer: 2. Secondary xylem

Question 32. Cork cambium results in the formation of cork which becomes impermeable to water due to the accumulation of:

1. Resins
2. Suberin
3. Lignins
4. Tannins.

Answer: 2. Suberin

Question 33. Companion cells in plants are associated with:

1. Vessels
2. Sperms
3. Guard cells
4. Sieve elements.

Answer: 4. Sieve elements.

Question 34. In a plant organ which is covered by periderm and in which the stomata are absent, some gaseous exchange will take place through:

1. Lenticels
2. Trichomes
3. Aerenchyma
4. Pneumatophores

Answer: 1. Lenticels

Question 35. In a woody dicotyledonous tree, which of the following parts will mainly consist of primary tissues?

1. Stem and root
2. All parts
3. Shoot tips and root tips
4. Flowers, fruits and leaves.

Answer: 3. Shoot tips and root tips

Question 36. Which of the following statements is not true?

1. Cork cambium is otherwise called phellogen
2. Cork is otherwise called Phellem
3. The secondary cortex is otherwise called the periderm
4. The Cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called Phelloderm

1. 3 and 4 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 2 and 4 only
5. 1 and 4 only.

Answer: 1. 3 and 4 only

Question 37. Bicollateral conjoint vascular bundles have

1. Xylem and phloem, which are arranged alternately on different radii
2. The xylem and phloem, are situated at the same radius and it has two groups of phloem along the two sides of the xylem (inside and outside)
3. Xylem and phloem in the same radius but it has only one group phloem outside the xylem
4. Phloem surrounds the xylem tissues xylem surrounds the Phloem tissues.

Answer: 2. The Xylem and phloem, are situated at the same radius and it has two groups of phloem along the two sides of the xylem (inside and outside)

Question 38. Math the following in column 1 with column 2 and choose the correct combination.

1. 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
2. 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
3. 1-B, 2-A, 3-4, 4-C
4. 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
5. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A.

Answer: 5. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A.

Question 39. Casparian thickenings are found in the cells of:

1. Pericycle of the root
2. Endodermis of the root
3. Pericycle of the stem
4. Endoermis of the stem.

Answer: 2. Endodermis of the root

Question 40. A portion of apical meristem that gives rise to xylem tissue is called:

1. Protoxylem
2. Metaxylem
3. Procambium
4. Tracheid

Answer: 3. Procambium

Question 41. For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, which one of the following pairs is suitable?

1. Teak and pine
2. Deodar and fern
3. Wheat and maidenhair fern
4. Sugarcane and sunflower.

Answer: 1. Teak and pine

Question 42. Passage cells are thin-walled cells found in:

1. Phloem elements serve as entry points for substances for transport to other plant parts.
2. Testa of seeds to enable the emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination.
3. The central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
4. Endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.

Answer: 4. Endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.

Question 43. One of the characteristics of a sieve tube is:

1. It is a part of phloem
2. The function is the transport of inorganic solutes
3. It is a dead cell
4. A sieve plate is not present.

Answer: 1. It is a part of phloem

Question 44. In the following pairs where do you get lignin in both the elements?

1. Tracking and collenchyma
2. Sclerenchyma and sieve tube
3. Sclerenchyma and trachea
4. Parenchyma and endodermis.

Answer: 3. Sclerenchyma and trachea

Question 45. Which of the following statements is true?

1. Uneven thickening of the cell wall is characteristic of sclerenchyma
2. Periblem forms the cortex of the stem and the root
3. Tracheids are the chief water-transporting elements in gymnosperms
4. Companion cells are devoid of the nucleus at maturity
5. The commercial cork is obtained from Quercus suber

1. (1) and (4) only
2. (2) and (3) only
3. (3) and (4) only
4. (1), (2) and (3) only.
5. (2), (3) and(5).

Answer: 5. (2), (3) and(5).

Question 46. The waxy material deposited in the Casparian strip of the endodermis is:

1. Pectin
2. Suberin
3. Cellulose
4. Lignin
5. Hemicellulose.

Answer: 2. Suberin

Question 47. The vascular cambial ring of a dicot stem is:

1. Primary in origin
2. Secondary in origin
3. Embryonic in origin
4. Tertiary in origin
5. Partly primary and partly secondary in origin

Answer: 5. Partly primary and partly secondary in origin

Question 48. Consider the following statements:

1. In a dicot root, the vascular bundles are collateral and endarch
2. The innermost layer of the cortex in a dicot root is the endodermis
3. In a dicot root, the phloem classes are separated from the xylem by parenchymatous cel1s that are known as the conjunctive tissue of these statements given above

1. (1) is true, but (2) and (3) are false
2. (2) is true, but (1) and (3) are false
3. (1) is true, but (2) and (3) are false
4. (3) is true, but (1) and (3) are false
5. (3) is true, but (1) and (2) are false

Answer: 5. (3) is true, but (1) and (2) are false

Question 49. Ground tissue includes:

1. Axe tissues external to endodermis
2. All tissues except the epidermis and vascular bundles
3. Epidermis and cortex
4. All tissues are internal to the endodermis.

Answer: 2. All tissues except the epidermis and vascular bundles

Question 50. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called:

1. Phelloderm
2. Phellogen
3. Periderm
4. Phellem

Answer: 3. Periderm

Question 51. The common bottle cork is a product of:

1. Pheliogen
2. Xylem
3. Vascular cambium
4. Dermatogen.

Answer: 1. Pheliogen

Question 52. Closed Vascular bundles lack:

1. Conjunctive tissue
2. Cambium
3. Pith
4. Ground tissue

Answer: 2. Cambium

Question 53. Water-containing cavities in vascular bundles are found in:

1. Maize
2. Cycas
3. Pinus
4. Sunflower.

Answer: 1. Maize

Question 54. Companion cells are closely associated with:

1. Vessel elements
2. Trichomes
3. Guard cells
4. Sieve elements.

Answer: 4. Sieve elements.

Question 55. Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of:

1. Xylem parenchyma
2. Endodermis
3. Pericycle
4. Medullary rays.

Answer: 4. Medullary rays.

Question 56. The age of a tree can be estimated by:

1. Biomass
2. Number of annual rings
3. Diameter of its heartwood
4. Its height and girth

Answer: 2. Number of annual rings

Class 12 Biology Evolution

Question 1. Mechanical isolation in plants is illustrated with an example of:

1. Oxalis
2. Ficus
3. Salvia
4. Calotropis.

Answer: 4. Calotropis.

Question 2. Speciation in two adjacent populations refers to;

1. Sympatry
2. Allopatry
3. Population isolation
4. Parapatric speciation.

Answer: 4. Parapatric speciation.

Question 3. Which of the following is not a part of Lamarck’s theory of evolution?

1. Use and disuse of organ
2. Variation
3. Inheritance of acquired characters
4. Environmental effect.

Answer: 2. Variation

Question 4. Who wrote the famous book “Philosophie Zoologique.”

1. Darwin
2. Morgan
3. Wallace
4. J. Lamarck.

Answer: 4. J. Lamarck.

Evolution Class 12 HBSE Biology Notes

Question 5. According to Darwin, the different populations of the same species are referred to as:

1. Varieties
2. Subspecies
3. Cultivars
4. Incipient species.

Answer: 3. Cultivars

evolution mcq

Question 6. Acquired characters are inherited. Which of the following scientists did not support the idea?

1. T.H. Morgan
2. A. Weismann
3. T.H. Huxley
4. De Vries.

Answer: 2. A. Weismann

Question 7. A staunch supporter of Neo-Lamarckism is:

1. A. Weismann
2. T.H. Morgan
3. C. Darwin
4. Hugo de Vries.

Answer: 2. T.H. Morgan

Question 8. Darwin’s theory of natural selection:

1. Was the first theory of evolution
2. Failed to explain the sources of evolution
3. Account for fossils
4. Has been replaced completely.

Answer: 2. Failed to explain the sources of evolution

Question 9. The concept of evolution through natural selection remains incomplete without:

1. Variations
2. Survival of fittest
3. Struggle for existence
4. All the above.

Answer: 4. All the above.

Darwin’S Theory Of Evolution Class 12 HBSE

Question 10. Who performed famous inbreeding experiments to expose the inefficiency of Darwinism?

1. Johanson
2. Dobzhansky
3. Sympson
4. Ernst Myar.

Answer: 1. Johanson

Question 11. Adaptive radiation is:

1. Migration from centres of dispersal
2. Tlic use of radioactive isotopes in biological research
3. Radiation used to destroy cancer
4. Evolution from an ancestral type to a diverse form suited to different environments.

Answer: 4. Evolution from an ancestral type to a diverse form suited to different environments.

Question 12. Two different groups evolve in such a way so as to produce similar traits. This is an example of:

1. Parallel evolution
2. Divergent evolution
3. Convergent evolution
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 3. Convergent evolution

Question 13. Marine arthropods were preadapted to terrestrial life by having:

1. No coelom
2. Exoskeleton
3. Closed circulatory system
4. No body segmentation.

Answer: 2. Exoskeleton

Question 14. Reproductive isolation between segments of a single population is termed:

1. Allopatry
2. Population
3. Divergence sympatry
4. Disruptive isolation.

Answer: 3. Divergence sympatry

Evidences Of Evolution Class 12 HBSE

Question 15. “An organ is used well, it will develop better and if it is not used, it is likely to become vestigial”. This was given by:

1. Darwin
2. De Vries
3. Lamarck
4. Mendel.

Answer: 3. Lamarck

Question 16. Blood precipitation tests are useful in:

1. Blood group
2. Animal relation
3. Antigen-antibody reaction
4. Immunity.

Answer: 2. Animal relation

evolution class 12 mcq

Question 17. Fitness, according to Darwin refers ultimately to:

1. Dominance over others
2. Ability to defend
3. Number of offsprings
4. Strategy for obtaining food.

Answer: 3. Number of offsprings

Question 18. Nowadays Lamarckian theory is being reviewed in the light of the modern concept of evolution under the heading Neo-Lamarckism. Who proved that the genes are influenced by physical and chemical factors so that they bring remarkable changes to the offspring:

1. Muller
2. Lindsci
3. Hoffman
4. Haeckel.

Answer: 1. Muller

Question 19. The struggle for existence is a consequence of:

1. Innate competitive tendencies
2. Territories and dominance hierarchies
3. Each organism leaves behind more offspring than needed to replace it
4. The inevitable difficulty of coping with climatic conditions.

Answer: 4. The inevitable difficulty of coping with climatic conditions.

Speciation And Adaptive Radiation Class 12 HBSE

Question 20. When in the nucleus of some animal cell the number of chromosomes is increased or decreased, and a change takes place in the genes, then the event is called:

1. Hereditary characters
2. Adaptation
3. Mutation
4. None.

Answer: 3. Mutation

Question 21. In convergent evolution:

1. Unrelated organisms look alike under environmental influence
2. Related organisms look distinct
3. The similarity in appearance is not caused by environmental factors
4. The environment has no role.

Answer: 1. Unrelated organisms look alike under environmental influence

Question 22. The aspect most profoundly coupled with natural selection is:

1. Preservation of favoured races
2. Adaptability of every single species
3. Enhanced fecundity of all organisms
4. Lesser role of environmental factors.

Answer: 1. Preservation of favoured races

Question 23. The modem scientific theory is redefined:

1. Natural selection
2. Theory of natural selection
3. Theory of special creation
4. Scala Naturae.

Answer: 2. Theory of natural selection

Question 24. Natural selection acts on an organism:

1. Dominant alleles
2. Recessive homozygous alleles
3. Combined genotype
4. Phenotype.

Answer: 4. Phenotype.

Genetic Drift And Gene Flow Class 12 HBSE

Question 25. Microevolution concerns the occurrence of:

1. Tribes
2. Races
3. Sub-species
4. Genera.

Answer: 3. Sub-species

Question 26. Microevolution changes:

1. Genetic equilibrium
2. Dominant trait
3. Gene pool
4. Gene occurrence.

Answer: 1. Genetic equilibrium

Question 27. Neo-Darwinism believes that new species develop through:

1. Mutations
2. Hybridisation
3. Mutations with natural selection
4. Continuous variations with natural selection.

Answer: 3. Mutations with natural selection

Question 28. The two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution are:

1. Fitness
2. Branching descent
3. Natural selection
4. Both (2) and (3).

Answer: 4. Both (2) and (3).

Question 29. Distantly related organisms with similar traits have experienced:

1. Co-evolution
2. Convergent evolution
3. Divergent evolution
4. Parallel evolution.

Answer: 2. Convergent evolution

Modern Synthetic Theory Of Evolution Class 12 HBSE

Question 30. “Darwin’s theory of Natural Selection” was objected to, because it:

1. Stresses open inter-specific competition
2. Explains adaptations of certain inherited characters
3. Stresses upon slow and small variations.
4. Explains that natural calamities take a heavy annual toll on lives.

Answer: 3. Stresses upon slow and small variations.

Question 31. Parallelism is:

1. Adaptive divergence in evolution
2. Adaptive convergence of widely different species in evolution
3. Adaptive convergence of closely related species in evolution
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Adaptive convergence of closely related species in evolution

Difference Between Lamarckism And Darwinism

Question 32. The Hardy-Weinberg Law states that when two alleles are considered:

1. Dominant alleles will always be more frequent in the population than recessive alleles
2. Heterozygotes will be twice as likely as homozygotes in a population
3. Members of adjacent populations are not able to interbreed with one another
4. Allelic frequencies cannot change in a large population unless one is at a selective advantage over the other or mating is non-random.

Answer: 4. Allelic frequencies cannot change in a large population unless one is at a selective advantage over the other or mating is non-random.

Question 33. The Hardy-Weinberg Law allows us to predict that:

1. Sexual reproduction is necessary for evolution
2. Sexual reproduction may be a cause of evolution
3. Sexual reproduction plays no role in evolution
4. Sexual reproduction will cause evolution if individuals prefer mates with one genotype over those with other genotypes.

Answer: 4. Sexual reproduction will cause evolution if individuals prefer mates with one genotype over those with other genotypes.

Human Evolution Class 12 Biology HBSE

Question 34. The change of lighter coloured variety of peppered moth, Riston betularia to its darker variety (carbonara) is due to:

1. Mutation of a single Mendelian gene for survival in the smoke-laden industrial environment
2. Deletion of a segment of a gene due to industrial pollution
3. Industrial carbon deposited on the wings of moths results in the darker variety
4. Translocation of a block of genes in chromosomes in response to heavy carbons.

Answer: 1. Mutation of a single Mendelian gene for survival in the smoke-laden industrial environment

Question 35. In evolution, change mutation occurs in:

1. Protoplasm
2. Germplasm DNA
3. RNA
4. Nucleus.

Answer: 2. Germplasm DNA

Question 36. Genetic drift is most important in which situation?

1. Gene flow in a cline
2. Polymorphism
3. Small populations
4. Breeding of flying insects.

Answer: 3. Small populations

Question 37. Genetic drift is more likely to cause evolution in a small population because:

1. Mating is non-random in small populations
2. Random events are more apt to happen in small populations
3. There is no natural selection in small populations
4. Deviations from statistical averages are more likely to be seen in small populations than in large ones.

Answer: 4. Deviations from statistical averages are more likely to be seen in small populations than in large ones.

Question 38. Selection will not eliminate a lethal recessive allele from a large population of diploid organisms because:

1. There will always be some heterozygote carrier for the allele
2. Gene fixation will occur in the population
3. Hetcrozygotcs arc at a selective advantage
4. The allele will have some good effects and these will become dominant.

Answer: 1. There will always be some heterozygote carrier for the allele

Comparative Anatomy As Evidence Of Evolution HBSE

Question 39. The most likely reason for the development of resistance against pesticides in insect-damaging crops is:

1. Genetic recombination
2. Acquired heritable changes
3. Directed mutations
4. Random mutations.

Answer: 2. Acquired heritable changes

Natural Selection Vs Mutation Theory Class 12 HBSE

Question 40. The theory of Neo-Lamarckism is dependent on:

1. Mutation and natural selection
2. Mutation
3. Variation
4. Heredity.

Answer: 1. Mutation and natural selection

Enzymes Multiple Choice Question and Answers

Question 1. The enzymes that break up starch into sugar are called:

1. Hydrolase
2. Amylase
3. Lipase
4. Nucleases.

Answer: 2. Amylase

Question 2. Enzymes are named after their substrate by adding a suffix:

1. – In
2. – Ase
3. – Os
4. – Sin.

Answer: 2. – Ase

Question 3. Apoenzyme is :

1. Protein
2. Carbohydrates
3. Vitamin
4. Amino acid.

Answer: 1. Protein

Question 4. Co-enzyme is :

1. Always a protein
2. Always a vitamin
3. Often a vitamin
4. Often a protein

Answer: 3. Often a vitamin

Question 5. The rate of most of the enzyme-catalyzed reactions changes with pH. As the pH increases, this rate:

1. Reaches a maximum then decreases
2. Reaches a minimum then decreases
3. Increases
4. Decreases.

Answer: 1. Reaches a maximum then decreases

Question 6. Co-enzymes can function :

1. In association with an apoenzyme
2. Independently of the apoenzyme
3. In association with vitamin
4. In association with a protein.

Answer: 1. In association with an apoenzyme

carbohydrates questions

Question 7. The enzymes which break up nucleic acids into nucleotides are called:

1. Nucleases
2. Amylases
3. Lipase
4. Protease.

Answer: 1. Nucleases

Question 8. Which mineral element is essential for the activity of enzyme nitrate reductase:

1. Molybdenum
2. Iron
3. Zinc
4. Calcium

Answer: 1. Molybdenum

Question 9. Most vitamins function as :

1. Holoenzyme
2. Enzymes
3. Hormones
4. Co-enzymes

Answer: 4. Co-enzymes

Enzymes Class 12 HBSE Biology Notes

Question 10. Stoppage of the biochemical process by the product of a step is known as:

1. Negative inhibition
2. Endproductinhibition
3. Feedback inhibition
4. All of the above

Answer: 4. All of the above

Question 11. Which of the following is the best evidence for the lock and key theory of enzyme action?

1. A11 isolated enzymes have been identified as proteins
2. Compounds similar in structure to the substrate inhibit the reaction
3. Enzymes are found in living organisms and speed up certain reactions
4. Enzymes determine the direction of a reaction

Answer: 2. Compounds similar in structure to the substrate inhibits the reaction

Question 12. Enzymes generally have :

1. Same pH and temperature options
2. Same pH but different temperature options
3. Different pH but same temperature optima
4. Different pH and different temperature optima

Answer: 3. Different pH but same temperature optima

Question 13. The term feedback refers to

1. The effect of substrate on the rate of enzymatic reaction
2. The effect of end product on the rate of enzymatic reaction
3. The effect of enzyme concentration or its rate of reaction
4. The effect of an external compound on the rate of enzymatic reaction.

Answer: 2. The effect of the end product on the rate of enzymatic reaction

Classification Of Enzymes With Examples Class 12

Question 14. Near the freezing point, an enzyme is :

1. Killed
2. Slightliz activated
3. Inactivated
4. Unaltected

Answer: 3. Inactivated

Question 15. Which of the following statements is true about enzymes?

1. Is altered permanently in the reaction it catalyses
2. Lowers the energy of activation of a reaction
3. Makes the equilibrium n-lore favorable for the organism
4. Lowers the energy of the product and increases the energy of the reactant.

Answer: 2. Lowers the energy of activation of a reaction

protein parts of enzyme is known as 

Question 16. Enzymes, vitamins, and hormones have one thing in common:

1. Au is synthesized in organisms
2. All are proteins
3. Al1 aids in regulating metabolism
4. All enhance oxidative metabolism.

Answer: 3. Al1 aids in regulating metabolism

Question 17. Which energy is needed to digest food reserves in castor seeds?

1. Lipase
2. Proteases
3. Amylase
4. Lactase.

Answer: 1. Lipase

Factors Affecting Enzyme Activity Class 12 HBSE

Question 18. Which of the following is the best evidence for the template theory of enzyme action?

1. Compounds similar in structure to the substrate inhibit the reaction
2. Enzymes speed up the reactions by definite amounts
3. Enzymes determine the direction of a reaction
4. Enzymes are found in living organisms and increase the rate of certain reactions.

Answer: 1. Compounds similar in structure to the substrate inhibits the reaction

Question 19. Nitrate reductase enzyme forms :

1. N₂
2. Amino acids
3. NO¯²
4. NO‾³

Answer: 3. NO-2

Question 20. In plants enzymes are present :

1. Only in flowers
2. Only in leaves
3. In all the living cells of the plant body
4. Only in storage organ.

Answer: 3. In a1l the living cells of the plant body

Question 21. Which of the following lacks enzymes?

1. Algae
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria
4. Virus.

Answer: 4. Virus.

Question 22. In the cell, digestive enzymes are mostly in :

1. Ysosornes
2. Cel1wal1
3. Ribosomes
4. Chromosome.

Answer: 1. Ysosornes

Enzyme Action Mechanism Class 12 HBSE

Question 23. Which of the following is iron-porphyrin complex?

1. Cytochrome
2. Fad
3. Co-a
4. Nad

Answer: 1. Cytochrome

Question 24. Fad or fmn is a co-enzyme. Which vitamin is incorporated into its structure?

1. Vitamin c
2. Vitamin B1
3. Vitamin B6
4. Vitamin B2

Answer: 4. Vitamin B.

Question 25. The ratio of the enzyme to the substrate molecule can be as high as:

1. 1: 1000
2. 1: 100,000
3. 1: 1000,000
4. 1: 50,000.

Answer: 3. 1: 1000,000

questions on carbohydrates

Question 26. Lock and key hypothesis to explain the action of enzymatic action was given by :

1. Kogl
2. Fischer
3. Miller
4. Lederberg and Tatum.

Answer: 2. Fischer

Question 27. Enzymes with the same function and different molecular structures are called:

1. Isomerases
2. Zymases
3. Isoenzymes
4. Coenzymes.

Answer: 3. Isoenzymes

Importance Of Enzymes In Metabolism Class 12

Question 28. The enzyme that removes the hydrogen from a substrate is:

1. Decarboxylase
2. Dehydrogenase
3. Protease
4. Lipase.

Answer: 2. Dehydrogenase

Michaelis-Menten Equation Derivation Class 12

Question 29. Which of the following is not true for enzymes?

1. Colloidal nature
2. Used up in the biochemical reaction
3. Affected by the change in temperature
4. Lowers the activation energy.

Answer: 2. Used up in the biochemical reaction

Question 30. Zyrnogen is defined as :

1. An enzyme inhibitor
2. Highly reactive state of the enzyme
3. An inactive proenzyme.
4. Complex formed of enzyme and substrate

Answer: 3. An inactive proenzyme.

Question 31. Which of the following enzymes would change glucose-6 phosphate to glucose 1-phosphate?

1. Transferase
2. Isomerase
3. Lyases
4. Glucose phosphatases.

Answer: 2. Isomerase

Difference Between Enzyme And Catalyst Class 12

Question 32. Maximum enzyme activity is observed at :

1. Acidic ph
2. Neutral ph
3. Basic ph
4. Optimum ph.

Answer: 4. Optimum ph.

Question 33. Conversion of pepsinogen into pepsin is :

1. Intramolecular rearrangement
2. Breaking of hydrogen bonds
3. Covalent modifications
4. Polymerization

Answer: 3. Covalent modifications

Applications Of Enzymes In Biotechnology Class 12

Question 34. The following reaction is characteristic of what type of enzyme?

1. Peroxidases
2. Catalases
3. Dehydrogenases
4. Copper-containing oxidases.

Answer: 1. Peroxidases

Question 35. Number of substrate molecules changed per minute by a molecule of the enzyme is called:

1. Reaction index
2. Turn over number
3. Deficiency number
4. Optimum number.

Answer: 2. Turn over number

Question 36. During the enzyme action:

1. The value of k is low
2. The value of k1 is low
3. The value of k- is high
4. The value of k, is high.

Answer: 2. Value of k1 is low

Enzyme Activity Graph Explanation Class 12 HBSE

Question 37. Oxidative enzymes mostly occur in :

1. Lysosomes
2. Mitochondria
3. Ribosomes
4. Golgi bodies.

Answer: 2. Mitochondria

Question 38. The substrate concentration at which half of the maximum velocity is achieved is termed :

1. Sumner’s constant
2. Michaelis constant
3. Buchner constant
4. Fischer constant.

Answer: 2. Michaelis constant

Enzyme Inhibition Types Class 12 HBSE

Question 39. An enzyme brings about :

1. Reduction in activation energy
2. Increase in reaction time
3. Increase in activation energy
4. All the above.

Answer: 1. Reduction in activation energy

Question 40. Enzymes exist in the cells as :

1. Solid
2. Crystals
3. Colloid
4. None of the above.

Answer: 3. Colloid

Question 1. The Nerve Fibres that conduct Impulses From The Peripheral To The Central Nervous System Are Called :

1. Motor Nerve Fibres
2. Mixed Nerve Fibres
3. Afferent Nerve Fibres
4. Efferent Nerve Fibres.

Answer: 3. Afferent Nerve Fibres

Question 2. The Nerve Fibres that carry Impulses From The Central Nervous System To The Muscles And Glands For Contraction And Secretion Are Called:

1. Efferent Nerve Fibres
2. Afferent Nerve Fibres
3. Mixed Nerve Fibres
4. Sensory Nerve Fibres.

Answer: 1. Efferent Nerve Fibres

nervous system questions

Question 3. When Sympathetic System Acts On A Particular Organ, Its Action Is :

1. Stimulated
2. Inhibited
3. Transmitted
4. Regulated.

Answer: 4. Regulated.

HBSE Class 11 Biology Central Nervous System

Question 4. The Simplest Form Of Nervous System That integrates rates of Body Activities Is Found In Cnidarians And Called :

1. Nerve Trunk System
2. Nerve Net System
3. Ladder System
4. Nerve Cord System.

Answer: 2. Nerve Net System

questions about nervous system

Question 5. Excitability And Conductivity Are The Outstanding Properties Of:

1. Arteries
2. Veins
3. Neurons
4. Nephrons.

Answer: 3. Neurons

Question 6. Dendrites Transmit The Impulses To :

1. The Body Of Cell
2. The Neurilemma
3. The Myelin Sheath
4. The Axon Only.

Answer: 1. The Body Of Cell

Question 7. Resting Potential Of Nerve Cells Is :

1. -90 Mv
2. -70-90 Mv
3. -120 Mv
4. -60 M V.

Answer: 2.  -70-90 Mv

Question 8. Nerve Is:

1. Group Of Nerve Fibres Bounded Together By Connective Tissue
2. Group Of Nerve Fibres Bounded By A Membrane
3. A Group Of Neuron Only
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 2. Group Of Nerve Fibres Bounded By A Membrane

questions about the nervous system

Question 9. Myelinated Fibres Are Nerve Fibres that are:

1. Without Any Surrounding Sheath
2. With A Surrounding Sheath
3. Without Axon
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 2. With A Surrounding Sheath

Question 10. During Synaptic Transmission Of Nerve Impulse, Neurotransmitter (P) Is Released From Synaptic Vesicles By The Action Of Ions (Q). Choose The Correct P And Q.

1. P = Acetylcholine, Q = Ca^–+
2. P = Acetylcholine Q = Na⁺
3. P = Gaba, Q =Na⁺
4. P = Cholinesterase, Q = Ca⁺⁺.

Answer: 3. P = Gaba, Q =Na+

Central Nervous System Class 11 Notes

Question 11. The Transmission Of Nerve Impulse Is A :

1. Mechanical Process
2. Biological Process
3. Electrochemical Process
4. Physical Process.

Answer: 3. Electrochemical Process

Question 12. The Potential Difference’betwecn Inside And Outside Of A Neuron Before Excitation Is Known As :

1. Resting Potential
2. Action Potential
3. Spike Potential
4. Reaction Potential.

Answer: 1. Resting Potential

Question 13. What Is The Difference Between The Conduction Of Electricity Through An Electric wire And That Of Nerve Impulse Through A nerve fibre

1. Nerves Are Living
2. Electricity Provides A Shock
3. Nerve Impulse Is Sell Generated On Stimulation And Propagated
4. All The Above.

Answer: 3. Nerve Impulse Is Sell Generated On Stimulation And Propagated

central nervous system test

Question 14. When Nene Is Stimulated, It Is Polarized. DepolarizaTion Is Maintained By The Following Ion :

1. Ca⁺⁺
2. Cl^–
3. Mg⁺⁺
4. Organic Compounds, K⁺ And Na⁺.

Answer: 4. Organic Compounds, K⁺ And Na⁺.

Question 15. During Resting Conditions The Membrane Of the Axon Is :

1. Impermeable To Na⁺ And K⁺ Ions
2. Permeable To Both Na⁺ And K⁺ Ions
3. More Penncable To K⁺ Than Na⁺ Ions
4. More Permeable To K⁺ And Cl^– Ions.

Answer: 3. More Penncable To K⁺ Than Na⁺ Ions

Question 16. The Tire Part Of Ommatidium That Is Functionally Similar To the Retina Is :

1. Crystalline Cone
2. Basement Membrane
3. Rhabdome
4. Vitrellae.

Answer: 3. Rhabdome

nervous system test

Question 17. The Simplest Form Of Nerve Network Is :

1. Neuron
2. Reflex Arc
3. Peripheral Nervous System
4. Autonomic Nervous System.

Answer: 2. Reflex Arc

Structure and Function of Central Nervous System

Question 18. The Chemical Theory Of Transmission Attributes The Response Of Postsynaptic Cells To A Chemical Substance Released From:

1. Axon
2. Synapse
3. Pre-Synaptic Nerve Terminal
4. Dendrites.

Answer: 3. Pre-Synaptic Nerve Terminal

Question 19. Acetylcholine Is Most Closely Associated With Which Of The Following Systems?

1. Autonomic Nervous System
2. All The Neurons Except Those Of Sympathetic Nervous System
3. Parasympathetic Nervous System
4. Peripheral Nervous System.

Answer: 2. A11 The Neurons Except Those Of Sympathetic Nervous System

Question 20. The Sensory Ganglion Concerned With Spinal Reflex Lies In:

1. Anterior Root Of Spinal Nerve
2. Anterior Hom Of Spinal Nerve
3. Posterior Root Of Spinal Nerve
4. Posterior Hom Of Spinal Cord.

Answer: 3. Posterior Root Of Spinal Nerve

Question 21. Sodium Pump Of An Axon Is Operative At:

1. Action Potential Period
2. Resting Potential Period
3. Refractory Period
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 1. Action Potential Period

Question 22. The Gap Between the Terminal Knobs Of An Axon And Dendrites Of The Cell Body Of Another Axon Is Known As:

1. Synaptic Cleft
2. Synapse
3. Neural Crest
4. Tight Junction.

Answer: 1. Synaptic Cleft

Question 23. Acetylcholine Is :

1. Secreted  By Nerve Cells In Synapse
2. Produced By Liver
3. A Delivery Enzyme
4. Activates Enzymes.

Answer: 1. Produced By Liver

Question 24. Action Potential Is :

1. Brief Change In Electric Charge
2. Brief Change In Oxygen Concentration
3. Brief Change In C0₂ Concentration
4. Change In Direction Of Nerve.

Answer: 1. Brief Change In Electric Charge

Question 25. During the Refractory Period :

1. Nerve Transmits Impulses Rapidly
2. Nerve Transmits Impulses Very Slowly
3. Nerve Never Transmits Impulses
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 3. Nerve Never Transmits Impulses

Brain and Spinal Cord Class 11 Biology

Question 26. Electrical Impulse Of The Eye Recorded Are :

1. Encephalogram
2. Electro-Cardiogram
3. Electro-Retinogram
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 3. Electro-Retinogram

Question 27. Neurotransmitters Are Compounds That:

1. Help In Transmission Of Impulse In Synapse
2. Retard The Transmission Of Impulse In An Axon
3. Retard The Transmission Of Impulse At Synapsis
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 1. Help In Transmission Of Impulse In Synapse

Question 28. The 3rd, 6th And 11th Cranial Nerves Are :

1. Oculomotor, Trigeminal, Spinal
2. Optic, Facial, Spinal
3. Oculomotor, Abducens, Spinal
4. Trochlear, Abducens, Vagus.

Answer: 3. Oculomotor, Abducens, Spinal

Question 29. Which Of The Following Cranial Nerves Is Present In Rabbit But Absent In Frog?

1. Glossopharyngeal
2. Hypoglossal
3. Olfactory
4. Optic

Answer: 2. Olfactory

Question 30. Nervous System Was, First Of All, Originated In :

1. Leech
2. Ascaris
3. Hydra
4. Tape Worm.

Answer: 3. Hydra

Question 31. Sympathetic Nerves In Mammals Arise From :

1. Thoraco-Lumbar Nerves
2. 3^rd, 7^th, 9^th And 10^th Cranial Nerves
3. Sacral Nerves
4. Cervical Nerves.

Answer: 1. Thoraco-Lumbar Nerves

Question 32. At The Nerve Synapse :

1. Carbon Dioxide Is Released
2. Oxygen Is Released
3. Neuro-Transmitters Are Released
4. Nothing Is Released.

Answer: 3. Neuro-Transmitters Are Released

Difference Between CNS and PNS

Question 33. At The Nerve Cell Membrane, The Equilibrium Potential For Potassium Is :

1. + 65 M V
2. +35m V
3. -90 M V
4. -70 M V

Answer: 3. -90 M V

Question 34. The “Spike” Phase Of Action Potential Lasts For Roughly :

1. 20 Milli Second
2. 2 Milli Second
3. 200 Milli Second
4. 2000 Milli Second.

Answer: 2. 2 Milli Second

Question 35.The Chemical Thcoiy Of Ti.Msmissiou Iillrilnitcs The Response Of Postsvnaptic Coll To A Chemical Substance Released Item :

1. Axon
2. Synapse
3. Pre-Synaptic Nerve Terminal
4. Dendrites.

Answer: 3. Pre-Synaptic Nerve Terminal

Question 36. One None Is Stimulated, It Is Polarized. Depolarization Is Maintained By The Following Ion :

1. Ca⁺
2. Cl^–
3. Mg⁺⁺
4. K⁺.

Answer: 4. K⁺.

Question 37. During Resting Conditions The Membrane Of the Axon Is:

1. Impermeable To Na⁺ And K⁺ Ion
2. Permeable To Both Na⁺ And K⁺ Ions
3. More Penncable To K⁺ Than Na⁺ Ion
4. More Permeable To K⁺ And Cl^– Ions.

Answer: 3. More Penncable To K⁺ Than Na⁺ Ion

Question 38. Conduction Of Nerve Impulse Along A Myelinated Nerve Is :

1. Twisted
2. Reversible
3. Saltatory
4. Continuous.

Answer: 3. Saltatory

Question 39. Somaesthetic Area Is Located In :

1. Frontal Lobe
2. Mid Lobe
3. Parietal Lobe
4. None.

Answer: 3. Parietal Lobe

Question 40. The Ends Of Bipolar Neurons In Retina Of Man Touch :

1. Choroid Layer And Ganglion Cells
2. Photosensitive Cells And Ganglion Cells
3. Cornea And Retina
4. Blind Spot And Yellow Spot.

Answer: 2. Photosensitive Cells And Ganglion Cells

Question 41. Glands Of Swammerdam Are Rich In :

1. Calcium
2. Acetylcholine
3. Dopamine
4. Gonadotrophin.

Answer: 1. Calcium

Question 42. Sensory Neuron In A Vertebrate Reflex Are Located In :

1. Grey Matter Of Spinal Cord
2. White Matter Of Spinal Cord
3. Ventral Root Ganglion
4. Dorsal Root Ganglion.

Answer: 4. Dorsal Root Ganglion.

Question 43. Which One Of The Following Nerves Is Not Related To The Movement Of Eye Ball?

1. Oculomotor
2. Abducens
3. Trochlear
4. Glossopharyngeal.

Answer: 4. Glossopharyngeal.

Question 44. The Benzodiazepine Drug Known As Valium Produces Relaxation By Aiding The Binding To Receptor Proteins Of Inhibitory Neurotransmitters:

1. Ach
2. Gaba
3. Dopamine
4. Glycine.

Answer: 2. Gaba

Question 45. Which One Of The Following Is The Effect Of Parasympathetic Nervous System?

1. Increasing Blood Pressure
2. Secretion Of Digestive Juice
3. Dilating Pupil
4. Increasing Cardiac Output.

Answer: 2. Secretion Of Digestive Juice

Question 46. Which Of The Following Is the Function Of Pons Varolii?

1. Site Of Cardiac Centre
2. Perceiving Centre For Crude Sensation
3. Controls Hunger And Thirst
4. Transmits Impulses From One Side Of Ceubellum To The Other Side.

Answer: 4. Transmits Impulses From One Side Of Ceubellum To The Other Side.

Question 47. The Cervical Plexus Is Formed By

1. Anterior Rami Of First Two Cervical Nerves
2. Anterior Rami Of First Three Cervical Nerves
3. Anterior Rami Of First Two Cervical And First Two Thoracic Nerves
4. Anterior Rami Of Hist Four Cervical Nerves.

Answer: 4. Anterior Rami Of First Two Cervical And First Two Thoracic Nerves

Question 48. Presynaptic Membrane Permits :

1. Influx Of Na⁺ Ions
2. Influx Of Ca^+₃  Ions
3. Influx Of Na⁺ And K⁺ Ions
4. Start Of Original Impulse.

Answer: 2. Influx Of Ca^+₂ Ions

Question 49. Heart Beat Is Regulated By :

1. Cns
2. Ans
3. PNS
4. Spinal Cord.

Answer: 2. Ans

Question 50. Brain Reserves How Many Percent Of Total 0₂ Consumed By Body?

1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 30%
4. 40%.

Answer: 2. 20%

Question 51. The Refractory Centre Which Rfor Exampleulates Respiration Is Located In :

1. Medulla Oblongata
2. Cerebral Peduncle
3. Vagus Nerve
4. Cerebellum.

Answer: 1. Medulla Oblongata

Question 52. Which Brain Structure In Rabbit Is Directly Vision Related ?’

1. Hippocampus
2. Corpus Callosum
3. Corpus Albicans
4. Corpora Quadrigeminum.

Answer: 4. Corpora Quadrigeminum

Question 53. Most Of The Neurons Of Our Body Are :

1. Unipolar
2. Bipolar
3. Pseudo-Unipolar
4. Multipolar.

Answer: 4. Multipolar.

Question 54. Body Coordination Is Exhibited By :

1. Blood Vascular System
2. Nervous System
3. Endocrine System
4. Nervous And Endocrine System.

Answer: 4. Nervous And Endocrine System.

Question 55. The Sodium-Potassium Pump :

1. Transports Na⁺ And K⁺ Out Of The Neuron
2. Transports Na⁺ Into The Neuron And K⁺ Out
3. Transports K⁺ Into The Neuron And Na⁺ Out
4. Transports Na⁺ And K⁺ Into The Neuron.

Answer: 3. Transports K⁺ Into The Neuron And Na⁺ Out

Question 56. When A Neuron Shows A Stable Resting Potential, The Concentration Of Na⁺ Is :

1. 10 Times Higher Inside The Cell Than Outside
2. 10 Times Higher Outside The Cell Than Inside
3. 30 Times Higher Inside The Cell Than Outside
4. 30 Times Higher Outside The Cell Than Inside.

Answer: 2. 10 Times Higher Outside The Cell Than Inside

Question 57. In The Resting State Of The Neural Membrane, Diffusion Due To Concentration Gradients, If Allowed, Would Drive

1. Na⁺ Into The Cell
2. Na⁺ Out Of The Cell
3. K⁺ Into The Cell
4. K⁺ And Na⁺ Out Of The Cell.

Answer: 1. Na⁺ Into The Cell

Question 58. The Resting Potential Of Neurons Is  70 Mv. It Is Mainly Due To :

1. Excess Of Chloride Ions Inside
2. Excess Of Protein Ions Inside
3. Na+ Ions Outside
4. K⁺ Ions Inside.

Answer: 3. Na⁺ Ions Outside

Question 59. A Nerve Impulse Which Travels Through Nerve Fibre Only It Its Membrane Suddenly Becomes More Permeable To Ions Of:

1. Chloride
2. Potassium (K⁺)
3. Sodium (Na⁺)
4. Magnesium (Mg⁺⁺).

Answer: 3. Sodium (Na⁺)

Question 60. An Action Potential, For A Given Axon, Is:

1. Different In Size Each Time It Occurs
2. Always The Same Size
3. Larger When Information Has To Be Conveyed Faster
4. Smaller When Information Goes To A Gland Rather Than  A Muscle.

Answer: 2. Always The Same Size

Question 61. Which Of The Following Increases When An Action Potential Is Initiated?

1. Diffusion Of Sodium Ions Into The Neuron
2. Diffusion Of Sodium Ions Out Of The Neuron
3. Diffusion Of Potassium Ions Out Of The Neuron
4. Diffusion Of Potassium Ions Into The Neuron.

Answer: 1. Diffusion Of Sodium Ions Into The Neuron

Question 62. When An Action Potential Abruptly Drops From Positive To Nfor Exampleative, This Is Because :

1. Potassium Gates Are Inactivated And Sodium Gates Are Opened
2. Sodium Gates Are Inactivated And Potassium Gates Are Opened
3. Both Potassium And Sodium Gates Are Inactivated
4. Both Potassium And Sodium Gates Are Opened.

Answer: 2. Sodium Gates Are Inactivated And Potassium Gates Are Opened

Question 63. A Nerve Impulse Leaves A Neuron Via :

1. Dendrite
2. Cyton
3. Axon
4. Nucleus.

Answer: 3. Axon

Question 64. Synapse Is A Gap Between Adjacent :

1. Muscle Fibres
2. Nerve Cells
3. Nerve Cell Bodies
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 2. Nerve Cells

Question 65. A Nerve Which Conveys Impulses From A Tissue To Nerve Centre Is Called :

1. Efferent
2. Mixed
3. Motor
4. Afferent.

Answer: 4. Afferent.

Question 66. The “Spike” Phase Of The Action Potential Lasts For Roughly :

1. 2 Milliseconds
2. 20 Milliseconds
3. 200 Milliseconds
4. 2000 Milliseconds.

Answer: 1. 2 Milliseconds

Question 67. The Speed At Which Impulses Are Conducted Increases With :

1. Increasing the Diameter Of The Soma
2. Increasing the Diameter Of The Axon
3. Increasing Number Of Dendrites
4. Increasing Branching Of The Dendrites.

Answer: 2. Increasing the Diameter Of The Axon

Question 68. Saltatory Conduction Of Nerve Impulses Occurs In :

1. A myelinated Fibres
2. Myelinated Fibres
3. Both A And B
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 2. Myelinated Fibres

Question 69. Synaptic Fatigue Is Due To :

1. Exhaustion Of Neurotransmitter
2. Release Of More Adrenaline
3. Release Of More Acetylcholine
4. None Of The Above.

Answer: 1. Exhaustion Of Neurotransmitter

Question 70. Secretion Of Parasympathetic Nerve Endings Is :

1. Noradrenaline
2. Glycine
3. Acetylcholine
4. Hydroxy-Triptamine.

Answer: 3. Acetylcholine